Let $f:\mathbb R^2\to\mathbb R$ be a convex function. For simplicity, assume that $f\in C^1$. A general theorem which can be found in the book of Evans and Gariepy says that the gradient $\nabla f$ is a function, or rather a mapping, of locally bounded variation as a function of two variables. Moreover $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x}$ is of locally bounded variation on every horizontal line as a function of one variable. This follows from the observation that the restriction of $f$ to horizontal lines is again convex and $C^1$. From the general properties (slicing) of functions of bounded variation it can be concluded that $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ is of locally bounded variation on almost every horizontal line, besides being of locally bounded variation on every vertical line.
My question is: Is it true, wrong or still unknown whether $\frac{\partial f}{\partial y}$ is of locally bounded variation on every rather than on almost every horizontal line?