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Let $\mathcal P(\mathbb R)$ be the set of probability measures. Set for $\mu,\nu\in\mathcal P(\mathbb R)$

$$d(\mu,\nu) := \inf\left\{\varepsilon>0:~ F_{\mu}(x-\varepsilon)-\varepsilon \le F_{\nu}(x)\le F_{\mu}(x+\varepsilon)+\varepsilon,~ \forall x\in\mathbb R\right\}$$

and

$$\rho(\mu,\nu) := \sup\left\{\int fd\mu- \int fd\nu:~ f \mbox{ is } 1-\mbox{Lipschitz and uniformly bounded by } 1 \right\},$$

where $F_{\mu}$ (resp. $F_{\nu}$) denotes the cumulative distribution function of $\mu$ (resp. $\nu$). It is known that the weak convergence on $\mathcal P(\mathbb R)$ is equivalent to the convergence under $d$ and the convergence under $\rho$. Does there exist $C>0$ s.t.

$$\frac{d(\mu,\nu)}{C}~\le~ \rho(\mu,\nu)~\le~ Cd(\mu,\nu),\quad \forall \mu,\nu\in\mathcal P(\mathbb R)?$$

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  • $\begingroup$ I don't know the answer of the top of my head, but isn't the $d$ the Prokhorov metric and $\rho$ the 1-Wasserstein metric (also known as bounded Lipschitz metric and under other names). $\endgroup$
    – Dirk
    Commented Sep 11, 2021 at 9:10
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. While $\rho$ is not the Wasserstein metric (unless $\mu,\nu$ have bounded supports) but is the metrization of the weak convergence (which can be found in Billingsley's book) $\endgroup$
    – GJC20
    Commented Sep 11, 2021 at 10:30
  • $\begingroup$ Yeah, Wasserstein-1 would be without boundedness of f. This variant is also know as Kantorovich-Rubinstein metric. $\endgroup$
    – Dirk
    Commented Sep 11, 2021 at 17:51

1 Answer 1

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For every $\varepsilon\in(0,1)$ there are $\mu$, $\nu$ such that $d(\mu,\nu)=\varepsilon$ and $\rho(\mu,\nu)=\varepsilon^2$.

For example, $\mu=\varepsilon\delta_0 + (1-\varepsilon)\delta_2$ and $\nu=\varepsilon\delta_\varepsilon + (1-\varepsilon)\delta_2$.

Hence there is no $C>0$ such that $d(\mu,\nu)\leq C \rho(\mu,\nu)$ for all $\mu,\nu$.

(Addition to address GJC20's comment:) However, $\frac{2d^2}{2+d}\leq\rho\leq 3d$; see Theorem 8.10.43 in Bogachev, Measure Theory (Springer 2007).

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  • $\begingroup$ Amazing example. This shows that $\rho$ and $d$ are not strongly equivalent metrics. Do we still have some chance to show $d$ is stronger than $\rho$? $\endgroup$
    – GJC20
    Commented Sep 12, 2021 at 12:25
  • $\begingroup$ $\rho$ and $d$ are not Lipschitz-equivalent, but they are uniformly equivalent. See Theorem 8.10.43 in Bogachev, Measure Theory. $\endgroup$
    – user95282
    Commented Sep 12, 2021 at 12:34
  • $\begingroup$ Many thanks. I will check the reference $\endgroup$
    – GJC20
    Commented Sep 12, 2021 at 14:36

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