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This note is related to

Can all three numbers $\ n\ \ n^2-1\ \ n^2+1\ $ be fine (as opposed to coarse)?


Let $$ m\ n\ \in\ \mathbb N_{_{>1}}\ :=\ \{x\in\mathbb Z: x>1\} $$ be arbitrary.   Let $\ P(n)\ $ be the largest prime divisor of $n$.

Definition:   Molecularity of $n$ is $$ M(n)\ :=\ \log_{P(n)}(n) $$

Instantly,

Theorem

  • $ M(n) \ge 1;$
  • $ M(n)=1\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad p\ $ is a prime;
  • $ M(n^k)\ =\ k\cdot M(n)\qquad $ (for every $\ k=1\ 2\ \ldots);$
  • $ M(m\cdot n)\ \le\ M(m)+M(n);$
  • $ M(m\cdot n)=M(m)+M(n)\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad P(\gcd(m\ n))\ =\ P(m\cdot n). $

For instance: $$ n>3\quad\Rightarrow\quad M(n^2-1)\ <\ M(n-1)+M(n+1) $$

Question 1:   What is $$ \sup_{n>2}\ \min(M(n-1)\,\ M(n)\,\ M(n+1))\quad ?$$ Question 2:   What is $$ \inf_{n>2}\ \frac1{M(n-1)}+\frac1{M(n)}+\frac1{M(n+1)} \quad? $$

The ever-sharper bounds would be greatly appreciated.

I dare, this time with a greater probability, that the above sup is $\ \le 4,\ $ and that $4$ cannot be actually attained.

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    $\begingroup$ I'm assuming in question 1 you mean $\min(M(n-1),M(n),M(n+1))$. In that case, it is greater than $4$ for $n=116026274$ or $n=196512876$ (values found here). I strongly suspect the supremum in Q1 is infinite while the infimum in Q2 is 0. $\endgroup$
    – Wojowu
    Commented Jun 29, 2021 at 8:05
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    $\begingroup$ @Wojowu: Indeed, this is the case. See my response below. $\endgroup$
    – GH from MO
    Commented Jun 29, 2021 at 8:09
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    $\begingroup$ I see that @GHfromMO has provided a full answer. Thank you, GH, I have learned from it. This must relate to abc (but then, everything does). $\endgroup$
    – Wlod AA
    Commented Jun 29, 2021 at 8:14

1 Answer 1

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For every $u>0$, there exists $n$ such that each of $P(n-1)$, $P(n)$, $P(n-1)$ is less than $n^u$. This was proved by Eggleton and Selfridge (Consecutive integers with no large prime factors, J. Austral. Math. Soc. Ser. A 22 (1976), 1–11). In fact their proof is constructive (see pp. 2-3 of their paper). It follows that the supremum in Question 1 is infinite, while the infimum in Question 2 is zero.

I should add that this phenomenon also holds for an arbitrary long string of consecutive integers. For example, there exists $n$ such that each of $P(n-50)$, $P(n-49)$, ..., $P(n+50)$ is less than $n^u$. This was proved by Balog and Wooley (On strings of consecutive integers with no large prime factors, J. Austral. Math. Soc. Ser. A 64 (1998), 266–276).

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  • $\begingroup$ Possibly, the answer by @Ilafer (?) (graphically confusing "ll") from the other thread can be expanded to prove the theorems by referenced by you. $\endgroup$
    – Wlod AA
    Commented Jun 29, 2021 at 8:51
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    $\begingroup$ @WlodAA: I don't know the other thread, but I believe you. On the other hand, the theorems of Eggleton-Selfridge and Balog-Wooley are stronger than what I told about them. $\endgroup$
    – GH from MO
    Commented Jun 29, 2021 at 18:26
  • $\begingroup$ @GHfomMO, there was an entire sharp generation of number theoretists in the previous millennium who mastered continued fractions and Pell equation. They often used computers (were pioneers in those days), and they featured and applied or illustrated (elementary) quadratic reciprocity. $\endgroup$
    – Wlod AA
    Commented Jul 2, 2021 at 6:21

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