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Can all three numbers $\ n\ \ n^2-1\ \ n^2+1\ $ be fine (as opposed to coarse)?
Let $$ m\ n\ \in\ \mathbb N_{_{>1}}\ :=\ \{x\in\mathbb Z: x>1\} $$ be arbitrary. Let $\ P(n)\ $ be the largest prime divisor of $n$.
Definition: Molecularity of $n$ is $$ M(n)\ :=\ \log_{P(n)}(n) $$
Instantly,
Theorem
- $ M(n) \ge 1;$
- $ M(n)=1\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad p\ $ is a prime;
- $ M(n^k)\ =\ k\cdot M(n)\qquad $ (for every $\ k=1\ 2\ \ldots);$
- $ M(m\cdot n)\ \le\ M(n)+M(n);$$ M(m\cdot n)\ \le\ M(m)+M(n);$
- $ M(m\cdot n)=M(n)+M(n)\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad P(\gcd(m\ n))\ =\ P(m\cdot n). $$ M(m\cdot n)=M(m)+M(n)\quad\Leftrightarrow\quad P(\gcd(m\ n))\ =\ P(m\cdot n). $
For instance: $$ n>3\quad\Rightarrow\quad M(n^2-1)\ <\ M(n-1)+M(n+1) $$
Question 1: What is $$ \sup_{n>2}\ \min(M(n-1)\,\ M(n)\,\ M(n+1))\quad ?$$ Question 2: What is $$ \inf_{n>2}\ \frac1{M(n-1)}+\frac1{M(n)}+\frac1{M(n+1)} \quad? $$
The ever-sharper bounds would be greatly appreciated.
I dare, this time with a greater probability, that the above sup is $\ \le 4,\ $ and that $4$ cannot be actually attained.