The following little question has bugged me for a while.
Suppose $Z \subseteq \mathcal P(X)$. We say an ideal $I$ on $Z$ is normal when it is closed under diagonal unions, which means that if $\{ A_x : x \in X \} \subseteq I$, then $\nabla_x A_x := \{ z \in Z : \exists x \in z ( z \in A_x) \} \in I$. We say that $I$ is fine when for all $x \in X$, $\{ z \in Z : x \notin z \} \in I$. We say that $I$ is countably complete if it is closed under countable unions.
Fact 1: Normal + fine implies countably complete. See Proposition 1.5 here.
Fact 2: Fine does not imply countably complete. Let $Z$ be the collection of all finite subsets of an infinite set $X$, and let $I$ be the smallest fine ideal on $Z$.
Fact 3: Normal + countably complete does not imply fine. Let $Z$ be the set of all Dedekind cuts of the rationals, and let $I$ be a countably complete ideal on the reals like the Lebesgue null ideal. Then $I$ is normal by the regressive function characterization, since any regressive function on a non-null set takes some rational value on a non-null subset. But $I$ is not fine, since the set of cuts not containing a given rational is just the reals less than that rational, which is not null.
Fact 4: Fine + countably complete does not imply normal. It is not hard to show that the ideal of countable subsets of $\omega_1$ is not normal.
Question: Can we strengthen Fact 1? Does normality imply countable completeness?