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For $f: \mathbb R^n \to \mathbb R$ a locally integrable function, $\varepsilon \in (0, \infty)$, and $x \in \mathbb R^n$, define $I(f, \varepsilon, x)$ to be the averaged integral of $f$ over $B_{\varepsilon} (x)$, the ball of radius $\varepsilon$ around $x$.

Define $$ K(f, \varepsilon, x) := \begin{cases} 1 & \text{if }\; I(f, \varepsilon, x) > f(x),\\ -1 & \text{if }\; I(f, \varepsilon, x) < f(x),\\ 0, &\text{if }\; I(f, \varepsilon, x) = f(x).\\ \end{cases} $$

Finally, let $$ H(f, \varepsilon, x) = \dfrac{1}{\varepsilon} \int\limits_{(0, \varepsilon]} K(f, s, x) ds $$

Intuitively, H is the weighted average amount of time a function spends greater than (resp. less than) its value at a point, in an infinitesimal neighbourhood of said point.

Questions

  1. Is it true that any $C^2$ function $f$ satisfies $\limsup_{\varepsilon \to 0} H(f, \varepsilon, x) = \liminf_{\varepsilon \to 0} H(f, \varepsilon, x)$ for almost all $x \in \mathbb R$?

  2. Consider the PDE $\partial_t u(x, t)$ = $\limsup_{\varepsilon \to 0} H(u(x, t), \varepsilon, x)$.
    If (1) is true, then the $\limsup$ may be replaced by a limit, so that no arbitrary choice between limsup and liminf must be made.
    The PDE is meant in a strong sense, to be solved over functions $u: \mathbb R \times [0, \infty) \to \mathbb R$; denoted $u(x, t)$ that are $C^2$ in $x$ for each fixed $t$, and $C^1$ in $t$ for each fixed $x$; with initial condition $u(x, 0) = f(x)$ for arbitrary $f \in C^2$. Do strong solutions exist? Are they unique?

  3. The PDE in (2) is solvable by $u(x, t) := f(x)$ if the initial condition $f$ is a harmonic function, since harmonic functions satisfy the mean value property. Suppose the PDE in (ii) is uniquely solvable for some initial condition $f \in C^2$. Denoting by $u$ the solution, is it true that the functions $u(., t)$ converge pointwise to a harmonic function $u_\infty$ as $t \to \infty$?

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  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Ah, edited thanks! $\endgroup$
    – Nate River
    Commented Aug 2, 2021 at 5:28
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Oh, the latter sorry. $\endgroup$
    – Nate River
    Commented Aug 5, 2021 at 4:32

1 Answer 1

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I am puzzled by this question, so, at the risk of ridicule (which doesn't kill as we all know), I'll write what I understand from what is written.

  • It seems that if $f$ is affine,then $K(f,e,x)=0.$ This is in fact true of all functions with the mean value property, that is, harmonic functions.

  • If $f=x\cdot Ax$ where $A$ is a symmetric matrix, then $K=1$ when $A$ is positive definite (it is convex), $K=-1$ when $A$ is negative definite (it is concave). After a rotation, and a diagonalization, it appears that $K=\text{sgn}(\text{trace}(A)))$.

  • Even though $K$ isn't linear in $f$, it is a fact that if $K(f,e,x)=0$, then $K(f+g,e,x)=K(g,e,x)$, therefore a Taylor expansion at $x$ shows that if $f\in C^2(\mathbb R)$ then $$ \lim_{e\to0} H(f,e,x)= \text{sgn}(\text{trace}(D^2f(x))))= \text{sgn}(\Delta f) $$ except where $D^2f=0$, but $Df$ not constant (thank you Nate River for pointing it out). Luckily this is a set of zero measure by Sard's Theorem. Thus the answer to 1. is yes indeed.

Moving on the question 3. as noted above, when $f$ is harmonic, then $\Delta f=0$, and in turn $\lim_{e\to0} H(f,e,x)=0$. So a solution to $u(0,x)=f$, and $\partial_t u = \text{sgn}(\Delta u)$ is simply $u=f$ for all $t\geq0$. Now take $f=x^2$ (when $n=1$). Then the pde is $\partial_t u = 1$, a solution would be $u=x^2+t$ for all $t \geq0$ and all $x$, so the answer to question 3 is no.

Finally 2. The pde is $$ \begin{cases} \partial_t u &= \text{sgn}(\Delta u) \text{ on }\mathbb R^n \times [0,\infty), \\ u(0,x)&=f(x). \end{cases} $$ Apart from the case discussed in 3, the question of existence / uniqueness of solutions isn't obvious (to me). Taking for example $f=x^3$ (when $n=1$), a solution which would be continuous in time would be, for $x\neq0$, $u(x,t)=x^3 + t\frac{x}{|x|}$, but that cannot be made $C^2$ in $x$..

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  • $\begingroup$ Hmm, concerning question 1, what happens if $A = 0$ though? Then the higher order $O(x^3)$ terms would dominate and we can’t be sure of the value of $K$. $\endgroup$
    – Nate River
    Commented May 18, 2021 at 21:41
  • $\begingroup$ @NateRiver Thank you, added that point. $\endgroup$
    – username
    Commented May 19, 2021 at 14:32
  • $\begingroup$ Ah, Sard says that the set of critical values (stuff in the codomain) is measure 0, but not necessarily the set of critical points... still maybe it can be salvaged somehow hmm. $\endgroup$
    – Nate River
    Commented May 19, 2021 at 23:21

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