My question concerns the proof of a part of Lemma IV.2.2 (pag. 168) of the book Geometry of Algebraic Curves. vol. I by Arbarello, Cornalba, Griffiths and Harris. In order to state my problem, let me first fix some notation: a degree-d Poincaré line bundle for a smooth curve $C$ over the complex numbers is a line bundle $\mathcal{P}$ over $C\times Pic^d(C)$ restricting to $L$ on $C\cong C\times\{L\}$ for each $L\in Pic^d(C)$. $C_d$ is the symmetric product $C^d/S^d$, i.e. the scheme parametrising effective divisors on $C$, and it comes with a morphism $u\colon C_d\to Pic^d(C)$ taking $D$ to $\mathcal{O}(D)$.
Lemma IV.2.2 states that such $\mathcal{P}$ satisfies the following universal property: for each analytic space $S$ and line bundle $\mathcal{L}$ over $C\times S$ such that $\mathcal{L}_{|_{C\times \{s\}}}$ has degree $d$ for each $s\in S$, $\exists! f\colon S\to Pic^d(C)$ such that $(1\times f)^*\mathcal{P}=\mathcal{L}\otimes\phi^*\mathcal{R}$, where $\phi\colon C\times S\to S$ is the projection and $\mathcal{R}$ is a line bundle on $S$.
At first the authors reduce to the case $d\geq 2g-1$ ($g$ being the genus of $C$), so that the fibres of $u\colon C_d\to Pic^d(C)$ are ($d-g$)-dimensional projective spaces; furthermore, one can assume $Pic(S)=0$.
Now if $S$ is reduced, uniqueness follows, I think, because any $f$ as in the statement satisfies $f(s)=\mathcal{L}_{|_{C\times \{s\}}}$ and morphisms from reduced schemes are determined by their values on points. Thus if $f'$ is another such map one can assume that
$f$ and $f'$ map into an open subset $U$ of $Pic^d(C)$ over which $C_d$ is a trivial $\mathbb{P}^{d-g}$-bundle [since equality of morphisms can be checked locally and $f$, $f'$ correspond locally to morphisms of rings which only differ by nilpotents, I guess].
My problem is in the following part:
Let $g,g'$ be liftings of $f,f'$ to maps into $C_d$. Also, let $D,D'$ be the corresponding liftings of $\mathcal{L}$ to relative divisors on $C\times S$ [How does the correspondence goes? I do not see what they mean] Now, to give a lifting of either $f$ or $\mathcal{L}$ corresponds [again, how?] to choosing a section over $S$ of $\mathbb{P}(\phi_*\mathcal{L})\cong\mathbb{P}^{d-g}\times S$. Thus there is a lifting $g''$ of $f$ whose corresponding relative divisor is $D'$. But then, by the universal property of the universal divisor, $g'=g''$ [this seems fine] and hence $f=f'$.
I would be grateful to anyone who could answer my questions in brackets and more generally shed any light on how the overall argument works.