I recently gave an undergraduate course on group theory (which is not entirely my field of expertise, so the following questions might have a well-known answer of which I am simply unaware). As I was explaining the concept of solvability, I digressed a little and told the class about the odd-order theorem, also known as the Feit-Thompson theorem, which states that every finite group of odd order is solvable. I made the remark: Among finite groups, solvability is the rule rather than the exception, because solvability is at least as likely as oddity. One of my students asked: "So if I take an arbitrary finite group, how likely is it then that this group is of odd order?" To which I knew no reply.

So I would like to ask the following series of related questions:

(1.) If \begin{equation*}x_{n}=\frac{\#\text{Isomorphy classes of groups of even order $\leq n$}}{\#\text{Isomorphy classes of groups of order $\leq n$}}\end{equation*} does the series $x_{n}$ converge? If not, what are its cluster points?

(2.) If $m\in\mathbb{N}$ and \begin{equation*}y_{n}=\frac{\#\text{Isomorphy classes of groups of order $\leq n$, divisible by $m$}}{\#\text{Isomorphy classes of groups of order $\leq n$}}\end{equation*} does the series $y_{n}$ converge? If not, what are its cluster points?

(3.) If \begin{equation*}z_{n}=\frac{\#\text{Isomorphy classes of solvable groups of order $\leq n$}}{\#\text{Isomorphy classes of groups of order $\leq n$}}\end{equation*} does the series $z_{n}$ converge? If not, what are its cluster points?

My simple intuition is that in all three cases, the answer should be "yes, it converges", and it should converge to $\frac{1}{m}$ in case (2.), and to a value $\geq\frac{1}{2}$ in case 3.

I beg your forgiveness in advance if the answers are well-known, I am not an expert on group theory.