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Let $X$ be a smooth, complex projective algebraic variety defined over a number field $K$. Let $D$ be a divisor of $X$ defined over $K$ with the following property:

For any curve $C$ defined over $K$, we have $\operatorname{deg (D_{|C})=0}$

Is it then true that $c_1(D)=0$?

In general, in order to have $c_1(D)=0$, I should check that $\operatorname{deg (D_{|C})=0}$ for any curve (not just the ones defined over $K$). I'm asking if in this particular setting, the curves defined over $K$ are enough.

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Every curve on $X$ is algebraically equivalent to a curve defined over a finite extension of $K$, and then a union of Galois conjugates will be defined over $K$. So, if you allow reducible curves, then the answer is yes.

Added: The intersection product is Galois invariant.

For a nonperfect field $k$ and a divisor $D$ defined over a purely inseparable extension of $k$ of degree $p^m$, the divisor $p^m D$ is defined over $k$.

Regard $D$ as the Cartier divisor defined by a family of pairs $(f_{i},U_{i}^{\prime})$, $f_{i}\in k^{\prime}(X)$, and let $U_{i}$ be the image of $U_{i}^{\prime}$ in $X$; then $k^{\prime}(X)^{p^{m}}\subset k(X)$, and so the pairs $(f_{i}% ^{p^{m}},U_{i})$ define a divisor on $X$ whose inverse image on $X_{k^{\prime}}$ is $p^{m}D$.

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    $\begingroup$ Can you provide more details how this proves the claim? I mean if $D.(C_1 +C_2) = 0$, it doesn't follow that $D.C_1 =D.C_2 =0$ in general. I guess you are using that the intersection product is Galois invariant? In any case, there should be an argument which also works over non-perfect fields. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 11, 2020 at 18:51
  • $\begingroup$ Mhh yes, I think that it is crucial to use the fact that the intersection product is Galois invariant (in general invariant for base change). I always considered it as a "well known fact". $\endgroup$
    – manifold
    Commented Oct 11, 2020 at 21:04

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