I came across Villani's paper titled *"Hypocoercive diffusion operators"* and couldn't figure out a computation that is skipped in that paper. Specifically, consider the following transformed Fokker-Planck equation, where $h(t,x,v)$ is the unknown, $(x,v) \in \mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R}^n$, $V(x)$ is some potential force: $$\partial_t h + v\cdot \nabla_x h - \nabla V(x)\cdot \nabla_v h = \Delta_v h - v\cdot \nabla_v h.$$ Notice that the Laplacian $\Delta_v$ is only a partial Laplacian in the sense that it only acts on the velocity variables $v$, and for the usual $L^2$ energy $\int h^2 d\mu$, where $d\mu = f_\infty(x,v) dxdv$ and $f_\infty(x,v) = \frac{\mathrm{e}^{-\left(V(x)+\frac{|v|^2}{2}\right)}}{Z}$ with $Z$ a normalization constant making $f_\infty$ a probability density in $(x,v) \in \mathbb{R}^n \times \mathbb{R}^n$, and we easily have $\frac{1}{2} \frac{d}{dt} \int h^2 d\mu = -\int |\nabla_v h|^2 d\mu$. Then the author says under suitable assumptions on $V$, we can find suitable constants $a,c, K>0$ so that $$\frac{d}{dt}\left(\int h^2 d\mu + a\int |\nabla_x h|^2 d\mu + c\int |\nabla_v h|^2 d\mu \right) \leq -K\left(\int |\nabla_v h|^2 d\mu + \int |\nabla_v\nabla_x h|^2 d\mu + \int |\nabla_v\nabla_v h|^2 d\mu\right). $$ However, I have no clue why the above inequality holds (and justifying it in 1D should be enough for me, i.e., in the case $(x,v) \in \mathbb{R}\times\mathbb{R}$). What I did is the following (in 1D setting). Set
$$I(t):=\left(a\int |\nabla_x h|^2 d\mu + c\int |\nabla_v h|^2 d\mu \right).$$
Then
\begin{align*}
\frac 12\frac{dI}{dt} &= -a\int |\partial_v\partial_x h|^2 d\mu - c\int |\partial_v\partial_v h|^2 d\mu - c\int |\partial_v h|^2 d\mu\\
&\quad \color{red}{+ a\int \partial_x h \partial_x\left(V'(x)\partial_v h\right) - v\partial_xh\partial_{xx}h~d\mu} \\
&\quad \color{red}{+c\int V'(x)\partial_vh\partial_{vv}h - \partial_vh\left(\partial_x h+v\partial_v\partial_xh\right)~d\mu}
\end{align*}
But I have no clue as to the treatment of the terms in red. Any help would be greatly appreciated!

Edit: I have also asked this question on Math Stack Exchange (the link is https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3782421/modified-energy-method-for-transformed-fokker-planck-equation-tricky-integratio) and no satisfying answer is given as well.