I was going to sketch a construction for a counterexample in the comments, but on reflection it may be more sensible to write it out in full as an answer.
Let $B=\begin{pmatrix}
i & 0 \\ 0 &-i
\end{pmatrix}$ and let $T=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 \\0 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$. Then the $4\times 4$ matrix
$$
B\otimes T = \begin{pmatrix} iT & 0 \\ 0 & -iT \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} i & i & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & i & 0 & 0 \\ 0 & 0 & -i & -i \\ 0 & 0 & 0 & -i \end{pmatrix}
$$
has no real eigenvalue and is not diagonalizable over ${\mathbb C}$. On the other hand, note that for a suitable complex unitary matrix $U\in M_2({\mathbb C})$, $A_0:=UBU^*\in M_2({\mathbb R})$. We could take
$A_0 = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix}$.
Therefore if we take
$$
A:= A_0 \otimes T = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & - T \\ T & 0 \end{pmatrix} =
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 0 & - 1 & -1 \\
0 & 0 & 0 & -1 \\
1 & 1 & 0 & 0 \\
0 & 1 & 0 & 0
\end{pmatrix}
$$
then $A$ is a real matrix, which is similar in $M_4({\bf C})$ to $B\otimes T$, and hence has no real eigenvalue nor has any diagonalizable over ${\bf C}$.