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For every integer $n > 0$, let $C_n$ be the $4n \times 4n$ matrix having $1$'s in all positions $(i, j)$ such that $i - j$ is even, $3$'s in the two diagonals determined by $|i - j| = 2n + 1$, and $0$'s everywhere else. For example, we have $$C_2 = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 3 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 3 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 3 \\ 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 3 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 \\ 1 & 3 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1 & 3 & 1 & 0 & 1 & 0 & 1\end{bmatrix} .$$

I'd like to prove a formula for the characteristic polynomial of $C_n$. From some numerical experiments, I believe that it is $$(\lambda - 3)^{2n - 2} (\lambda + 3)^{2n - 2} (\lambda^2 - (2n-3)\lambda - 3) (\lambda^2 - (2n+3)\lambda + 3),$$ but I failed to prove that.

Any suggestion is welcome. Thanks.

Note 1. What makes things difficult are the $3$'s. If instead of them there were $0$'s, then we would have a circulant matrix, and using the theory of circulant matrices the characterist polynomial would be easily proved to be $\lambda^{4n - 2}(\lambda - 2n)^2$.

Note 2. Following Pat Devlin's suggestion, I checked the eigenspace of $\lambda = 3$ and it seems to be spanned by the row vectors of the following matrix $(2n-2)\times 4n$ matrix $$\begin{bmatrix}\begin{matrix}-1 \\ -1 \\ \vdots \\ -1\end{matrix} & I_{2n-2} & \begin{matrix}0 & 0 & -1\\ 0 & 0 & -1 \\ \vdots \\ 0 & 0 & -1\end{matrix} & I_{2n-2}\end{bmatrix} .$$ This shouldn't be difficult to prove, and similarly for the eigenspace of $\lambda = -3$. But I have no idea how to deal with the eigenvalues related to the factor $(\lambda^2 - (2n-3)\lambda - 3) (\lambda^2 - (2n+3)\lambda + 3)$.

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  • $\begingroup$ (If your conjecture is true, then the eigenspaces are probably nice. There’s also probably some nice involution swapping the eigenspaces for 3 and -3 and swapping the two-dimensional eigenspaces as well.) $\endgroup$
    – Pat Devlin
    Commented May 14, 2020 at 19:52
  • $\begingroup$ In fact, let $H_k$ denote the $4k \times 4k$ matrix consisting of the 0’s and 1’s of your matrix (with the 3’s replaced by 0’s). And let $W$ be the vectors in the kernel of $H_k$ which also satisfy that the middle coordinates of the vector are both 0. Then your matrix sends $W$ to itself in a nice way, and $W$ has codimension 4. I bet $W$ is the union of your two big eigenspaces. $\endgroup$
    – Pat Devlin
    Commented May 14, 2020 at 20:10
  • $\begingroup$ @PatDevlin The eigenspaces for 3 and -3 seem nice indeed. Thanks. I added a note about that. However, I don't see how to deal with the other four eigenvalues. $\endgroup$
    – MargeL
    Commented May 14, 2020 at 20:36
  • $\begingroup$ Following your edit, we’ve now found all but four eigenvectors. By the spectral theorem, these last four will be orthogonal to $W$, which is to say, they’re contained in the set of vectors such that except for the middle two coordinates, all the odd coordinates are equal, and all the even coordinates are equal. (This is a four-dimensional space, and its the orthogonal complement of $W$). $\endgroup$
    – Pat Devlin
    Commented May 14, 2020 at 20:39
  • $\begingroup$ One silly hack would be to try to deduce just enough about the eigenvalues to finish it off. For instance, we have all but four eigenvalues. We also know the trace of the matrix, which gives us one equation relating the other four (namely, they add to $4k$). You could look at a few powers of your matrix to get other stuff, but that feels kind of silly. Better would be to say “your matrix is similar to the following,” which is more or less the spirit of these comments so far. $\endgroup$
    – Pat Devlin
    Commented May 14, 2020 at 20:43

2 Answers 2

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Ok! Your conjecture is true.

Let $W$ be the space spanned by the eigenvectors for $\lambda \in \{-3, 3\}$ as described in my comments. Let $V$ be the subspace of $\mathbb{R}^{4n}$ consisting of vectors of the form

$$V = \{(a,b,a,b,a,b, \ldots, a, x, y, b, a, b, \ldots, a,b)\},$$

where the entries corresponding to $x,y$ are in positions $2n$ and $2n+1$ of the vector. (So $V$ is the orthogonal complement of $W$.)

Let $T : V \to \mathbb{R}^4$ by $T(\vec{v}) = (a,b,x,y)$ in the obvious way (so $T$ is an isomorphism).

We can check that $V$ is invariant under the action of $C_{n}$. And moreover, that $$T \circ C_{n} \circ T^{-1} \begin{pmatrix}a\\b\\x\\y \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}(2n-1)a +y + 3b\\(2n-1)b+x+3a\\(2n-1)b+x\\(2n-1)a+y \end{pmatrix}.$$

Thus, $C_{n}$ restricted to $V$ is isomorphic to the above linear map on $\mathbb{R}^4$, namely

$$\begin{pmatrix}a\\b\\x\\y\end{pmatrix} \mapsto \begin{pmatrix}2n-1 & 3 & 0 &1\\ 3 & 2n-1 & 1 &0\\ 0 & 2n-1 & 1 &0\\ 2n-1 & 0 & 0 &1\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}a\\b\\x\\y\end{pmatrix},$$

and this map has the desired remaining four eigenvalues as in your conjecture.

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The methods in the paper by Junod:

Junod, Alexandre, Hankel determinants and orthogonal polynomials., Expo. Math. 21, No. 1, 63-74 (2003). ZBL1153.15304.

Answer your question (and much more general ones, too).

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    $\begingroup$ Could you be more specific please? Because Junod's paper is about Hankel matrices, but my matrix isn't Hankel, it is Toeplitz. $\endgroup$
    – MargeL
    Commented May 15, 2020 at 6:19
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    $\begingroup$ @MargeL I am not sure what I was thinking (not enough sleep...) $\endgroup$
    – Igor Rivin
    Commented May 15, 2020 at 13:57

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