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After looking at this question, I am now wondering if the following is true.

Let $X$ be a separable Banach space over $\mathbb R$ or $\mathbb C$, and $A\subseteq X$ a closed set. Then there exists a function $f: X\to\mathbb R$ (Cannot be $\mathbb C$ here; always $\mathbb R$ even if the previous one is $\mathbb C$) such that $A=\{x\in X:f(x)=0\}$ and $f$ is infinitely differentiable in the sense of Fréchet (see Fréchet derivative).

Or can it be true after some minor modifications?

Here is my attempt to prove it.

Let $\phi:\mathbb R\to[0,\infty)$ be a $C^\infty$ function satisfying $\phi(t)=1$ for $|t|\leq1/2$ and $\phi(t)=0$ for $|t|\geq 1$. Such $\phi$ can be constructed by using functions like $\exp(-1/t)$.

Since $X$ is separable and $X\backslash A$ is open, $X\backslash A$ can be expressed as a countable union of open balls, $$ X\backslash A=\bigcup_{k=1}^\infty B(x_k,r_k). $$ Define, for $x\in X$, $$ f_k(x)=\phi\left(\frac{\|x_k-x\|}{r_k}\right). $$ Each $f_k$ is infinitely differentiable, since for $x\neq x_k$, this follows from the chain rule, and if $x=x_k$, obviously all orders of derivatives are zero since it is constant in a neighborhood of it.

Now, define $f(x)=\sum_k a_k f_k(x)$, where $$ a_k=\frac{1}{2^k} \left(\sup_{x\in B(x_k,r_k)\\ m\le k}\|D^m f_k(x)\|\right)^{-1}, $$ any if the thing in the bracket is zero, we can choose any positive value for $a_k$ as we like.

Does my proof work?

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    $\begingroup$ The norm may be non-smooth, even in finite dimension. This is easily corrected in the finite dimensional setting, but the existence of smooth function with compact support is not a given in general Banach spaces. This phenomenon is particularly annoying when one is hoping partitions of unity would exist. $\endgroup$
    – Pierre PC
    Commented Jan 12, 2020 at 4:28
  • $\begingroup$ @PierrePC What does it mean by "non-smooth"? I know that the norm in a Hilbert space is (at least first order) differentiable. $\endgroup$
    – Ma Joad
    Commented Jan 12, 2020 at 5:06
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    $\begingroup$ Sorry, I meant not smooth, like the $L^\infty$ norm in $\mathbb R^n$. In a Hilbert space, the norm is indeed smooth. $\endgroup$
    – Pierre PC
    Commented Jan 12, 2020 at 5:45
  • $\begingroup$ @PierrePC So my proof will work in a Hilbert space? $\endgroup$
    – Ma Joad
    Commented Jan 12, 2020 at 6:13
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    $\begingroup$ If there is a non-zero smooth function with bounded support, there are smooth partitions of unity, and any closed set is a the zero set of some smooth function. But a Banach space may fail to have non-zero differentiable function with bounded support. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 13, 2020 at 20:26

1 Answer 1

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In a few words, I believe there is not much to add to you proof to make it work, but it nevertheless highly decreases the breadth of the result.

Edit: As Pietro Majer said in the comment, the theorem below actually hold without the uniform bound for the derivatives. In other words, every open set of a fixed Banach space $B$ is the zero set of a $\mathcal C^k$ function if and only if there exists a $\mathcal C^k$ bump function, i.e. a non-zero function with bounded support. A self-contained reference is R. Bonic and J. Frampton, Smooth Functions on Banach Manifolds, 1966. The proof of Theorem 1 contains everything needed to prove the result I state here, up to a notational typo (maybe I am the only one to be terribly confused); the definition of $V_x$ should read: $$ V_x = \{y:f_{n(x)}(y)>\alpha(x)\}. $$

Notations

I write $L^k(B;B')$ for the Banach space of continuous $k$-linear functions with arguments in $B$ and image in $B'$; also $L(B,B')$ will mean $L^1(B;B')$. By definition, I say that $f:B\to B'$ is differentiable at $x$ only if there exists $A\in L(B,B')$ such that for any $\varepsilon>0$, we have $$ |f(x+h) - f(x) - A(h)|_{B'} \leq \varepsilon|h|_B $$ for all $h$ small enough. In particular, I always ask for the derivative at some point to be continuous. I define the $\mathcal C^k$ classes as usual, and the higher derivatives $D^k\!f$ of a function $f$ are functions from $B$ to $L^k(B;B')$.

Recall the following classic fact from metric topology.

Fact.

Let $B$ and $B'$ be two Banach spaces. The space of bounded continuous functions $f:B\to B'$ is complete, with respect to the norm $$ |f|_{B\to B'} := \sup_{x\in B}|f(x)|_{B'}. $$

It is actually true for $B$ a topological space, and $B'$ a complete metric space.

Positive results

I will show, using your proof, the following result.

Theorem.

Let $B$ be a separable Banach space and $0\leq k\leq\infty$. Suppose that there exists some non-zero function $f:B\to\mathbb R$ of class $\mathcal C^k$ with bounded support, such that $$ \sup_{x\in B}|D^\ell\!f(x)|_{L^\ell(B;\mathbb R)}<\infty $$ for all $0\leq\ell\leq k$. Then any closed set of $B$ is the zero set of some function of class $\mathcal C^k$.

The requirement seems absurd from a finite-dimensional perspective, but actually two things can go bad in infinite dimensions. First off, it might not be easy to find smooth functions to begin with — I am not an expert, but I seem to recall smooth functions with bounded support are not a given in an arbitrary Banach space. Second, a smooth function with bounded support can actually be unbounded. I give an example at the end of this answer.

Before giving the proof, here is a proof of existence in a particular case.

Proposition.

If $H$ is a Hilbert space, the squared norm $x\mapsto |x|_H^2$ is smooth, and all its derivatives are bounded on bounded sets.

Of course $|x|^2_H$ is continuous and quadratic, so its derivatives are $|x|_H^2$ (of order 0), $h\mapsto2\langle x,h\rangle$, $h,h'\mapsto2\langle h,h'\rangle$ and zero (of order $k\geq3$), and we see that they are bounded on bounded sets. Hence for instance $\phi(|x|_H^2)$, with $\phi$ as in your question, will work for the above theorem (we can choose $k=\infty$).

Proof

The proof of the Theorem is basically the one you gave, where you implicitly proceeded by induction using the following elementary lemmas.

Lemma 1.

Suppose $f_n:B\to B'$ is a sequence of functions of class $\mathcal C^1$. Assume moreover that $f_n$ and $Df_n:B\to L(B,B')$ are Cauchy sequences with respect to $|\cdot|_{B\to B'}$ and $|\cdot|_{B\to L(B,B')}$ respectively.

Then $f_n$ and $Df_n$ converge to some continuous functions $f$ and $g$, and $f$ is $\mathcal C^1$ with $Df=g$.

$~$

Lemma 2. Let $B$ be a separable Banach space, $U_0$ a bounded open neighbourhood of $0$ in $B$, and $(x_n)_{n\geq 0}$ a dense sequence in $B$.

Then for any open subset $U$ of $B$ and any $x\in B$, $x+r(x)U_0\subset U$ for $$0<r(x):=\sup\left\{r>0\text{ such that }x+r U_0\subset U\right\},$$ and $U=\bigcup_{n\geq0}\big(x_n+r(x_0)U_0\big)$.

To prove the first result, you just have to use the above Fact, and take the limit in $$ f(x+h) = f(x) + \int_0^1Df(x+th)(h)\mathrm dt. $$ The second one is easy, and I imagine you know it already.

A ‘negative’ result

I am giving here an explicit example of a smooth function $B\to\mathbb R$ with bounded support, but which is itself unbounded.

Suppose you have a continuous inclusion of Hilbert spaces $H\hookrightarrow K$. Then $|x|_K\leq C|x|_H$ for $C>0$ large enough. However, maybe $|x|_K$ can be arbitrary small for $|x|_H=1$. Both $|x|_H^2$ and $|x|_K^2$ are smooth functions on $H$, as discussed in the Proposition, so $$ f:x\mapsto \frac{\psi\big(1/|x|_H^2\big)}{|x|_K^2} $$ is smooth provided $\psi:\mathbb R\to\mathbb R$ is smooth and vanishes on a neighbourhood of zero.

Now if $x_n$ is a sequence in $H$ such that $|x_n|_H=1$ but $|x_n|_K$ goes to zero, fix some $\psi$ with support in $(1/2,2)$ and $\psi(1)=1$. Then for $f$ defined as above, $f(x_n)$ is $1/|x_n|_K^2$ and diverges, even though $f$ is smooth and has support in the ball of radius $2$ centred at zero.

For an actual concrete example, take the inclusion of Lebesgue spaces $\mathrm L^2\big([0,1],\mathrm dx\big)\subset\mathrm L^2\big([0,1],x\mathrm dx\big)$ and $$x_n:t\mapsto\begin{cases} n\text{ if }t\leq 1/n^2,\\ 0\text{ else.}\end{cases}$$

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  • $\begingroup$ As a side remark note that of there is a nonzero function with bounded support on X, one can make it bounded (in uniform norm) e.g. composing with $\arctan$ $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14, 2020 at 1:56
  • $\begingroup$ @PietroMajer Maybe I am missing your point, but 1) I agree that my example was artificial and that the unboundedness is easily corrected. I just think it is a neat example that speaks against something that we often take for granted. 2) Ideally, one would want to change the function so that the uniform norm but also a (say fixed but arbitrary large) number of its derivatives as well. Are you saying that there is a way to do that with methods similar to what you describe? $\endgroup$
    – Pierre PC
    Commented Jan 14, 2020 at 2:59
  • $\begingroup$ no, that was only a side remark. As far as I know (i.e. $\epsilon$) there may be a hierarchy of situations, of Banach spaces where there are non-zero functions with bounded support in some regularity classes, but not in others (e.g. $C^k$ but not $C^k_b$ or $C^k_b$ but not $C^{k+1}$) $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14, 2020 at 10:39
  • $\begingroup$ For instance, I think one can make a function $f$ as in the hypothesis of your Theorem out of some $C^k$ function $g$ defined on some $U\subset B$ that has $D^2g(x_0)>0$ at least in one point (as a symmetric bilinear form). Indeed up to adding a linear form, $x_0$ is a local minimum, and a composition $f=\phi\circ g$ with a suitable smooth bump function $\phi:\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$ supported around $g(x_0)$ should do. (Boundedness of differentials of $f$ should follow from the fact that differentials of $g$ are continuous, hence locally boundeed) $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 14, 2020 at 16:26
  • $\begingroup$ I think you know the answer to my question: mathoverflow.net/q/410368/121665. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 13, 2021 at 13:33

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