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Consider a B&D process with infinitely many states, State 0 absorbing. Probability of ultimate absorption when starting in State $n$ (denoted $a_n$) is computed by solving $$a_n=\frac{\lambda_na_{n+1}+\mu_na_{n-1}}{\lambda_n+\mu_n}$$ for $n\ge1$, where $\lambda_n$ and $\mu_n$ are the up and down rates (respectively), all positive, and $a_0=1$. Seeking a solution other than $a_n\equiv1$ one defines $d_n=a_n-a_{n+1}$ which then leads to$$d_n=\frac{\alpha\prod_{j=1}^n\frac{\mu_j}{\lambda_j}}{\sum_{n=0}^\infty\prod_{j=1}^n\frac{\mu_j}{\lambda_j}}$$ where $\alpha$ is a constant, and $$a_n=1-\sum_{j=0}^{n-1}d_j$$ whenever the infinite sum converges (otherwise, $a_n=1$ is the correct solution). To establish the value of $\alpha$, there is a 'simple probabilistic argument' (Karlin) that $\lim_{n\to\infty}a_n$ cannot be positive, thus must be equal to zero (implying that $\alpha=1$). My question is: what is that argument?

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$\newcommand{\intr}[2]{\overline{#1,#2}}$ The desired result follows immediately from

Theorem

(I) If $a_1=1$, then $a_j=1$ for all $j\in\intr1\infty$.

(II) If $a_1<1$, then $S_\infty<\infty$ and $a_j=(S_\infty-S_j)(1-a_1)$ for all $j\in\intr1\infty$, where \begin{equation*} S_j:=\sum_{i=1}^j s_i,\quad s_j:=r_{j-1}\cdots r_1,\quad r_j:=q_j/p_j, \quad p_j:=\frac{\lambda_j}{\lambda_j+\mu_j},\quad q_j:=1-p_j. \end{equation*}

Proof Consider the embedded discrete-time Markov chain $(Y_t)_{t\in\intr0\infty}$, with state space $\intr0\infty$ and transition probabilities $P(Y_{t+1}=j+1|Y_t=j)=p_j=1-P(Y_{t+1}=j-1|Y_t=j)$ for $j\in\intr1\infty$ and $P(Y_{t+1}=0|Y_t=0)=1$, for all $t\in\intr0\infty$. Then the probabilities of the absorption (at $0$) for the embedded chain are the same $a_j$'s, as for the original birth-and-death process.

The key observation is the following simple one: Fix any $j\in\intr0\infty$. For any natural $N\ge j$, let $a^N_j$ denote the conditional probability that the embedded chain reaches the state $0$ before it reaches the state $N$ given that the chain starts in state $j$. Then, by the continuity of probability theorem (Theorem 10.2),
\begin{equation} \text{$a^N_j\to a_j$.}\tag{0} \end{equation} Everywhere here, the convergence is as $N\to\infty$.

Let us now compute $a^N_j$. We have \begin{equation*} a^N_0=1,\quad a^N_N=0,\quad a^N_j=p_ja^N_{j+1}+q_ja^N_{j-1}\ \forall j\in\intr1{N-1}. \end{equation*} The latter equality can be rewritten as $h^N_{j+1}=r_jh^N_j$, where \begin{equation*} h^N_j:=a^N_{j-1}-a^N_j, \end{equation*} whence \begin{equation*} h^N_j=r_{j-1}\cdots r_1h^N_1=s_jh^N_1\tag{0.5} \end{equation*} and, further, \begin{equation*} a^N_j=\sum_{i=j+1}^Nh^N_i=\sum_{i=j+1}^Ns_ih^N_1=(S_N-S_j)(1-a^N_1) \tag{1} \end{equation*} for all $j\in\intr0N$. In particular, for $j=0$ formula (1) yields \begin{equation*} 1=S_N(1-a^N_1). \end{equation*} So, by (0), \begin{equation} a_1=1\iff S_\infty=\infty. \tag{2} \end{equation}

Now consider the following two cases:

*Case I: $a_1=1$. Then $a^N_1\to1$, $h^N_1\to0$, and hence, by (0.5), $h^N_j\to0$ for all $j\in\intr1\infty$. So, $a^N_j=1-\sum_{i=1}^j h^N_i\to1$ and hence $a_j=1$ for all $j\in\intr1\infty$. This proves part (I) of the theorem.

*Case II: $a_1<1$. Then part (II) of the theorem follows immediately from (2), (1), and (0).

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks, right you are, it seems the zero limit is not a consequence, but an additional condition on the solution (whose necessity follows from a 'simple probabilistic argument') - I'll need to rephrase my question accordingly. $\endgroup$
    – Honza
    Commented Oct 27, 2019 at 20:13
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    $\begingroup$ @Honza : The problem with "additional condition on the solution" is that, if you impose such a condition on the sequence $(a_n)$, you'll be thus imposing an additional condition on the rates $\lambda_n$ and $\mu_n$, because equation (1) implies that $\lambda_n/\mu_n=(a_{n-1}-a_n)/(a_n-a_{n+1})$ for all natural $n$. The latter imposition, on the rates, does not look good, though. So, again, it could help if you completely reproduced here all the relevant definitions and exact statements from that book or, at least, gave us an accessible reference to the book. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 27, 2019 at 20:41
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, again, you are right, and that's how the actual solution is built (first solving for the sequence of the $a_{n-1}-a_n$ differences, which is now quite easy), but I don't see how this imposes any constraint on the rates. I'll include full reference to Karlin tomorrow. $\endgroup$
    – Honza
    Commented Oct 27, 2019 at 22:15
  • $\begingroup$ @Honza : In general, $a_n\not\to0$. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 28, 2019 at 3:18
  • $\begingroup$ The exact reference is: Samuel Karlin "A first course in stochastic processes" Academic Press 1969, page 203. I'll edit my question to closely follow his arguments. $\endgroup$
    – Honza
    Commented Oct 28, 2019 at 16:41

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