3
$\begingroup$

Suppose $\mu_n\implies\mu$, i.e. $\mu_n$ converges weakly to $\mu$ where $\mu_n$, $\mu$ are probability measures on some metric space $(X,d)$. Given a Borel set $B$, define $\mu^B$ to be the conditional probability given $B$, i.e. $\mu^B(A)=\mu(A\cap B)/\mu(B)$, and similarly for $\mu_n^B$.

Under what conditions (e.g. on $X$, $\mu$, and/or $B$) does it follow that $\mu_n^B\implies\mu^B$?

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

For $\mu_n^B\Longrightarrow\mu^B$, it is enough that $\mu(\partial B)=0$ (and $\mu(B)>0$), where $\partial B$ denotes the boundary of $B$.

Indeed, then for any Borel set $A$ such that $\mu(\partial A)=0$ we have $\mu(\partial (A\cap B))=0$, because $\partial(A\cap B)\subseteq(\partial A)\cup(\partial B)$. So, by the Portmanteau theorem, we have $\mu_n^B\Longrightarrow\mu^B$.

$\endgroup$
1
$\begingroup$

A sufficient condition is that $B$ is a $\mu$-continuity set, namely, $\mu(\partial B)=0$.

To see this, recall weak convergence can be characterized by $\mu_n(E)\rightarrow \mu(E)$ for any $\mu$-continuity Borel set $E$. Then to establish the desired weak convergence of conditional probability measures, it suffices to note that for any Borel $A$ with $\mu(\partial A)=0$, we have $\mu(\partial(A\cap B))=0$ as well since $\partial(A\cap B)\subset \partial A \cup \partial B$.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.