-2
$\begingroup$

Let $X$ be a random variable with support on the positive integers (you can assume $\mathbb{E}[X^2] <\infty$ if needed, or even higher moments if needed), and let $S(i)=\mathbb{P}(X\geq I)$. Consider the random sum $$W =\sum_{i=0}^X S(i)$$

Reasoning heuristically, we're summing about $\mathbb{E}[X]$ terms, the first of which are close to one and the last of which are about $1/2$. So the sum itself should be a bit less than $\mathbb{E}[X]$, but still of the same order. Is this true?

Being a bit more formal, what I'd like to be true is that asymptotically, as $\mathbb{E}[X] \to \infty$, $\frac{\mathbb{E}[W]}{\mathbb{E}[X]}$ stays bounded away from 0. (That it is bounded above by one is trivial.)

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ Do you mean $S(i) = \mathbb P(X \ge i)$ rather than $I$? $\endgroup$ Jan 17, 2019 at 16:04
  • $\begingroup$ In that case $\mathbb E[W] = \sum_{i=0}^\infty S(i)^2$ while $\mathbb E[X] = \sum_{i=1}^\infty S(i)$. $\endgroup$ Jan 17, 2019 at 16:15

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

It is possible to take random variables $X_k$ and the corresponding $W_k$ so $\mathbb E[X_k] \to \infty$ while $\mathbb E[W_k]/\mathbb E[X_k] \to 0$. For example, consider $X = N$ with probability $p$, $0$ with probability $1-p$. Then $\mathbb E[W] = \sum_{i=0}^\infty S(i)^2 = 1 + N p^2$ while $\mathbb E[X] = Np$, so $\mathbb E[W]/\mathbb E[X] = p + 1/(Np)$. Take $N_k \to \infty$ and $p_k \to 0$ so $N_k p_k \to \infty$ (e.g. $p_k = 1/\sqrt{N_k}$).

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.