Consider the Markov chain $(\theta_n, \phi_n)$ on $S^1 \times S^1$ constructed in the following way. For $\xi_n$ a sequence of i.i.d. normal random variables and $\kappa > 0$ a fixed number, we set $$ \theta_{n+1} = \theta_n + \kappa \xi_n\;,\qquad \phi_{n+1} = \arg((3+2\sqrt 2)\cos \phi_n,\sin \phi_n) + \theta_n\;, $$ where $arg(v)$ denotes the angle of the vector $v$ with $(1,0)$. For every $\kappa > 0$, it has a unique invariant measure $\mu_\kappa$ and it is obvious that its first marginal $\pi_\theta^* \mu_\kappa$ is just Lebesgue measure $\lambda$ for every $\kappa$.
Of course, one has $\lim_{\kappa \to \infty} \mu_\kappa = \lambda \otimes \lambda$, so that $\lim_{\kappa \to \infty} \pi_\phi^*\mu_\kappa =\lambda$. More surprisingly, it follows from an explicit but lengthy calculation that one also has $\lim_{\kappa \to 0} \pi_\phi^*\mu_\kappa =\lambda$. This begs the question: is it true that $\pi_\phi^*\mu_\kappa =\lambda$ for every $\kappa > 0$? I've checked it numerically to rather high accuracy for several values of $\kappa$ and it seems to be the case. Given the simplicity of the statement, it feels like there should be a rather simple argument if it is true, but it eludes me at the moment.
According to computer simulations, the statement seems independent of the specific value $3+2\sqrt 2$ appearing in the definition above although i) it appears to fail when the value is replaced by a negative number and ii) the specific value $3+2\sqrt 2$ simplifies the calculation of the limit $\kappa \to 0$ somewhat.