Hi,
I am trying to figure out if there are any functions, and then for which, where one can say that the gradient of the projection is the same as the projection of the gradient. In this case a projection of the function f(x,y,z) is an integral $p(x,y) = \int f(x,y,z) dz$.
It seems to me that it might not be true in the general case. But are there any such functions?
Another way of looking at it is that I would like to know if there are an analogy to the projection-slice theorem, but for gradients.
I hope the question is correctly formulated, and my apologies if I missed out something very obvious. It does seem to me like this question should have popped up before and there should be some know result. I might have missed it in the textbook. Helps and pointers appreciated.