If $m$ is a probability measure on a measurable space $(X, \Sigma)$, is there necessarily a measurable function $f : [0, 1] \to X$ such that $m(A) = \mu(f^{-1}(A))$ for all $A \in \Sigma$? ($\mu$ is the Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$)
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1$\begingroup$ It's sufficient, but not necessary, that $(X,\Sigma)$ is standard Borel. I wonder if there is some known necessary and sufficient condition? I looked in Bogachev but didn't see it there. $\endgroup$– Nate EldredgeCommented Oct 5, 2017 at 22:14
4 Answers
No. Some probability spaces are too big. An example should be $X = \{0,1\}^A$, with the Haar measure, where $A$ has large enough cardinal.
Probably $|A| = 2^{\aleph_0}$ would do it, but the proof for that would require some work.
But let's do it without that much work. If we make the cardinal of $A$ really big, we can get: for any set $E \subset X$ of cardinal $2^{\aleph_0}$, the closure of $E$ has measure zero.
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A simpler example with the same idea.
Let $X$ be a set with cardinal ${}\gt 2^{\aleph_0}$. Let the sigma algebra $\Sigma$ consist of all subsets of cardinal $\le 2^{\aleph_0}$ and their complements. The measure $m$ is defined as: $m(E) = 0$ for sets $E$ with
cardinal $\le 2^{\aleph_0}$, and $m(X\setminus E) = 1$ for their complements.
I claim there is no map $f : [0,1] \to X$ with the condition required. Indeed, let $f : [0,1] \to X$ be any map. The image $A = f\big([0,1]\big)$ has cardinal $\le 2^{\aleph_0}$, so $m(A) = 0$, but $\mu\big(f^{-1}(A)\big) = \mu\big([0,1]\big) = 1$.
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$\begingroup$ Thanks. Does the result hold with $|X| \leq 2^{\aleph_0}$? $\endgroup$– HugoCommented Oct 5, 2017 at 13:28
There are even counterexamples with $X=[0,1]$ and $\Sigma$ countably generated. Gnedenko and Kolmogorov introduced the notion of a perfect probability measure. One characterization of perfectness is that the probability space $(X,\mathcal{X},\nu)$ is perfect if whenever $f:X\to\mathbb{R}$ is measurable, there must be a Borel set $B\subseteq f(X)$ such that $\nu\circ f^{-1}(B)=1$. The pushforward of a perfect probability measure is then clearly perfect again and it follows from the inner regularity of Lebesgue measure that Lebesgue measure on $[0,1]$ is perfect. So it suffices to give a probability measure that is not perfect. Now perfect probability measures are very well-behaved. In particular, for perfect probability spaces, regular conditional probabilities with respect to a countably generated sub-$\sigma$-algebra always exist. But most advanced probability theory textbooks will give you an example of a probability measure on $[0,1]$ with the $\sigma$-algebra constructed from the Borel sets and one nonmesuarable set, such that no regular conditional probability with respect to the Borel sets exists.
(I know next to nothing about exotic measure spaces, but here is what I was able to find).
This question is very close to Maharam's theorem, which asserts that every complete measure space is "isomorphic" to a weighted sum of products of the standard measure space ($[0,1]$ with the Lebesgue measure). Important note: "isomorphic" refers to algebras of measurable sets modulo null sets, and not the underlying spaces (see here for a detailed discussion).
If $|X| \leqslant 2^{\aleph_0}$, then necessarily $X$ is "isomorphic" to $[0,1]$ plus atoms. I do not know, however, if this "isomorphism" can be lifted to a point-wise isomorphism, which would clearly imply a positive answer to the original question. A perforated interval might be a counterexample here, but straight away I do not see why. Actually, the entire Wikipedia article on standard probability spaces might give a good start.
Lebesgue measure on $[0, 1]$ has non separable extensions. See
A Non-Separable Translation Invariant Extension of the Lebesgue Measure Space, Kunihiko Kodaira and Shizuo Kakutani, Annals of Mathematics Second Series, Vol. 52, No. 3 (Nov., 1950), pp. 574-579
This gives a negative answer with $X = [0, 1]$.