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I'm trying to understand why the definition of a regular holonomic D-module is a good generalisation of the usual definition of a regular singular point for a differential equation. More precisely, here is the definition of regular holonomic D-module I want to use

A D-module $M$ on a complex manifold $X$ is holonomic if $\text{char}(M)$ has the same dimension as $X$. Moreover, it is regular if there is a good filtration $\{M_j\}_{j\in \mathbb{Z}}$ such that $$f\cdot\text{gr}(M)=0$$ for all $f\in \text{gr}(D_X)$ vanishing on $\text{char}(M).$

Now I'd like to test this definition on an example. I consider a Bessel equation $$P(f) :=(z^2 \partial_z^2 + z\partial_z + (z^2-4))(f)=0.$$ The point $z=0$ is regular singular thanks to the $z^2$. Of course if the leading coefficient is replaced by $z^3$ it becomes irregular singular. Now I consider the D-module $$M := D_{\mathbb{C}}/D_{\mathbb{C}} P$$ naturally attached to this equation. We should normaly be able to prove that this D-module on $\mathbb{C}$ is regular holonomic. (And not regular if we put $z^3$ as a leading coefficient) First the characteristic variety is given by the null-set of $(z,w)\mapsto z^2w^2$ and so $$\text{char}(M) = \mathbb{C} \cup T_0^{*}\mathbb{C}$$ which has dimension $1$, so the module is holonomic. Now as a candidate for the good filtration, Simon Wadsley proposes to take $$M_n=D_n.(1+D_\mathbb{C}P).$$

Now I'm getting lost, how can I prove that $f\cdot\text{gr}(M)=0$ for all $f\in \text{gr}(D_X)$ vanishing on $\text{char}(M) \,?$ It doesn't make much sense to me.

Thank you for any help.

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  • $\begingroup$ I think you are mistaken that your filtration is good. You want something like $M_n=D_n.(1+D_\mathbb{C}P)$ where $D_n$ denotes the differential operators of order at most $n$. You will only get $M_n=M$ for some $n$ if $M$ is an integrable connection ie a f.g. $O_X$-module. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 15, 2017 at 13:54
  • $\begingroup$ Also note that your statement says that there exists a good filtration with some property not that every good filtration has that property. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 15, 2017 at 13:54
  • $\begingroup$ You're right, I have been too quick, my filtration is not a good candidate. I will edit the post with your suggestion. The main problem for me is to prove the equality $f\cdot \text{gr}(M)=0$. $\endgroup$
    – C. Dubussy
    Commented Jun 15, 2017 at 13:57
  • $\begingroup$ You might want to look into the other equivalent conditions. E.g.: 1) Every pullback to a smooth curve has all r.h. cohomology; 2) the analytic and formal power series solution complexes agree. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 15, 2017 at 18:49
  • $\begingroup$ @Avi Steiner : Thanks for your comment. I was aware of these equivalences but the definition with filtrations was the first to appear in Kashiwara's papers about the Riemann-Hilbert problem. And he said that this definition "clearly allows to recover the usual definition for differential equations". So perhaps it is the "best" definition to make the link with the old one. $\endgroup$
    – C. Dubussy
    Commented Jun 16, 2017 at 9:57

1 Answer 1

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I'm going to show (eventually) that your proposed filtration does not work.

Let $I$ be an ideal of $D_\Bbb{C}$, and let $M=D_\Bbb{C}/I$. Then, letting $u$ be the image in $M$ of $1$ (so $\operatorname{ann}_{D_\Bbb{C}}(u) = I$),

  1. the filtration $M_j = D_j u$ of $M$ is a good filtration;
  2. the filtration $I_j = D_j \cap I$ of $I$ is a good filtration;
  3. the maps in the exact sequence of $D_\Bbb{C}$-modules $$ 0\to I \to D_\Bbb{C} \to M \to 0$$ are strictly filtered (recall that a map $f\colon M\to N$ is strictly filtered if $f(M)\cap N_j = f(M_j)$ for all $j$).

By 3., the sequence $$0 \to \operatorname{gr} I \to \operatorname{gr}D_\Bbb{C} \to \operatorname{gr} M \to 0$$ is still exact, so $ \operatorname{gr}M \cong \operatorname{gr}D_\Bbb{C}/\operatorname{gr} I$, and the characteristic variety of $M$ is the zero locus of $\operatorname{gr} I$.

Case $I$ is principal:

Suppose $I= D_\Bbb{C} P$ is principal. Then (prove this!) $\operatorname{gr} I$ is generated by the principal symbol $\sigma(P)$ of $P$. Hence, $\operatorname{gr} M \cong \operatorname{gr} D_\Bbb{C}/(\sigma(P))$.

In particular, if $P = z^2 \partial_z^2 + z\partial_z + z^2-4$, then $\sigma(P)=z^2\partial_z^2$, and therefore $\operatorname{gr} M \cong \operatorname{gr} D_\Bbb{C}/(z^2\partial_z^2)$. However, the ideal of $\operatorname{Ch}(M)$ is $(z\partial_z)$, which means that this filtration that we chose is not the one whose existence is claimed by the proof.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your complete answer. I finally think the approach with formal series will be the best to understand the link between the old notion and the modern one. $\endgroup$
    – C. Dubussy
    Commented Jun 28, 2017 at 14:20

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