I have a very naive question concerning Hilbert's irreducilibity theorem over function fields.
Let $f: V \to \mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}$ be a finite morphism, with $V$ an irreducible variety over $\mathbb{Q}$.
It is known that the function field $\mathbb{Q}(t)$ is Hilbertian. Hence Hilbert's irreducibility theorem implies that there exists a point $x \in \mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{Q}(t))$ such that $f^{-1}(x)$ is irreducible. However, it is very possible in the statement of the irreducibility theorem that actually $x \in \mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{Q})$; I would like to know that one can choose an $x$ such that this is not the case.
Does there exist $x \in \mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{Q}(t))$ with $x \notin \mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{Q})$ such that $f^{-1}(x)$ is irreducible?
An equivalent way to phrase this is the following:
Is the set $\mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{Q}(t)) \setminus \mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{Q})$ not thin inside $\mathbb{A}^2_\mathbb{Q}(\mathbb{Q}(t))$?
Here I use the term thin set in the sense of Serre (https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Thin_set_(Serre))