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In the Wikipedia article on scalar curvature, it is noticed that the Hölder inequality implies $$Y(g) \geq - \left(\int_M |R(g)|^{n/2} \mathrm{d}V_g\right)^{n/2}$$ for the Yamabe functional $Y(g)$ and the scalar curvature $R(g)$. It is now concluded that this implies that the scalar curvature is bounded from below.

How can one conclude that the $L^{n/2}$ metric of the scalar curvature is bounded on a conformal class? Is this somehow obvious?

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    $\begingroup$ As far as I can tell, the Wikipedia article uses that inequality to say that the Yamabe functional is not $-\infty$. In this case, this should be because we're on a compact manifold and the scalar curvature is a smooth function on it, so the right-hand side of the inequality is $> -\infty$. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 27, 2017 at 8:34
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    $\begingroup$ The Wikipedia defines $Y(g)$ as the infimum of the Yamabe energy $\mathcal{E}(g)$, taken over the set of metrics conformal to $g$. It the proceeds to argue why the infimum is not $-\infty$. The argument is definitely not there to say why $\mathcal{E}(g)$ is finite; in particular, on would not need to use Hölder inequality for this. In conclusion, I have no idea how you come to your interpretation of the relevant passage of the Wikipedia article. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 30, 2017 at 11:57
  • $\begingroup$ Just calculate the Yamabe functional for a metric conformal to $g$ in terms of the Yamabe functional of $g$ and the first and second derivatives of the conformal factor. Observe that there is an inequality relating the two Yamabe functionals. Now apply the Holder's inequality. The $L^{n/2}$ norm of scalar curvature is useful, because it is scale invariant, which is why there is no volume factor on the right side of the inequality. $\endgroup$
    – Deane Yang
    Commented Jan 31, 2017 at 0:27
  • $\begingroup$ You can find the formula for the scalar curvature of the metric $e^{2\phi}g$ in terms of the scalar curvature of $g$ in terms of $\phi$ and its first and second covariant derivatives here: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… $\endgroup$
    – Deane Yang
    Commented Jan 31, 2017 at 3:44
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, that is the way I am used to look at the Yamabe functional, formulating it in terms of the conformal factor. That was why I find the statement in the Wikipedia article very curious, and thy I wondered whether there is some obvious reason why this norm should be bounded. But apparently there isn't and the Wikipedia article should be updated. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 31, 2017 at 14:35

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It's not obvious, but it follows by a straightforward argument using formula (1.1) in the Bulletin survey article by Lee and Parker. The case $n = 2$ is trivial, so assume $n > 2$. If a metric $\bar{g}$ is conformal to the metric $g$, then there exists a positive function $u$ such that $$ \bar{g} = u^{\frac{2}{n-2}}g $$ A straightforward calculation using (1.1) from Lee-Parker shows that $$ \int S(\bar{g})\,dV(\bar{g}) \ge \int uS(g)\,dV(g), $$ where $S(g)$ is the scalar curvature of $g$. The inequality now follows by substituting this into the definition of the Yamabe functional of $\bar{g}$ and applying Holder's inequality.

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The infimum is taken when varying f, g is fixed. So $Y(g)=\inf_f \mathcal E(e^{2f}g)\geq -(\int|R_g|^\frac{n}{2}dV_g)^\frac{2}{n}$ is also finite.

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