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QUESTION. How do I show that if $T$ is a tempered distribution that is harmonic, then $T$ is a polynomial?

Any help is greatly appreciated.

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1 Answer 1

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The Fourier transform is well-defined over the space ${\mathcal S}'(R^d)$ of tempered distributions into itself. If $T$ is harmonic, that is $\Delta T=0$, then $|\xi|^2\hat T=0$. This tells you that the support of $\hat T$ is $\{0\}$ (unless $T=0$ of course). Using the topology of ${\mathcal S}'(R^d)$, you know that the restriction of $\hat T$ over an open ball, say the unit ball, is of finite order: there exist an integer $n$ and a finite number $C$ such that $$|\langle\hat T,\phi\rangle|\le C\sum_{|\alpha|\le n}\sup_B|\partial^\alpha\phi(x)|.$$ This shows that $\hat T|_B$ extends uniquely to the space ${\mathcal C}^n_K(B)$. Because the support of $\hat T$ is $\{0\}$, its kernel contains the subspace $X$ of those $\phi$ which vanish in a neighbourhood of $0$. By continuity, $\hat T$ vanishes over $\bar X$, which is nothing but the finite dimensional subspace defined by $\partial^\alpha\phi(0)=0$. By elementary linear algebra, there follows that $\hat T$ is a linear combination of the forms $$\langle\lambda_\alpha,\phi\rangle=\partial^\alpha\phi(0),$$ for $|\alpha|\le n$. By inverse Fourier transform, you obtain that $T$ is a polynomial.

Of course, this proof works for every solution $T$ of a linear PDE with constant coefficients $P(\nabla)T=0$, whenever $P(i\xi)\ne0$ for every real vector $\xi\ne0$. This is an ellipticity assumption.

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    $\begingroup$ Once you know that the support of $\hat T$ is $\{0\}$, you are done: in fact, $\hat T$ is a (finite) linear combination of derivatives of the Dirac mass at 0, whose inverse Fourier transforms are monomials. $\endgroup$
    – Bazin
    Commented Dec 7, 2016 at 13:30
  • $\begingroup$ @Bazin Is finiteness obvious? Theoretically there could exist some infinite linear combinations of derivatives at zero which converge for every $\phi$... $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 7, 2016 at 15:31
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    $\begingroup$ @ მამუკა ჯიბლაძე . On every compact subset, a distribution is of finite order, by definition. $\endgroup$ Commented Dec 7, 2016 at 15:41
  • $\begingroup$ Maybe a stupid question. But why does $\lvert\xi\rvert^2\hat{T}=0$ imply that the support of $\hat{T}$ is $\{0\}$? $\endgroup$
    – Salamo
    Commented Oct 14, 2019 at 15:13
  • $\begingroup$ @Salamo. Just because on every open domain of ${\mathbb R}^n\setminus\{0\}$, $|x|^2$ is uniformly positive and therefore invertible. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 14, 2019 at 15:33

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