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Apr 13, 2020 at 6:35 comment added Denis Serre @Lamda8. I mean the fact that if $\ker f\subset\ker g$, where $f$ targets a finite-dimensional space, then there exists an $h$ such that $g=h\circ f$ (here everything is linear).
Apr 12, 2020 at 23:34 comment added Lamda8 Maybe a stupid question but how does the "by elemetary linear algebra" works?
Oct 14, 2019 at 15:33 comment added Denis Serre @Salamo. Just because on every open domain of ${\mathbb R}^n\setminus\{0\}$, $|x|^2$ is uniformly positive and therefore invertible.
Oct 14, 2019 at 15:13 comment added Salamo Maybe a stupid question. But why does $\lvert\xi\rvert^2\hat{T}=0$ imply that the support of $\hat{T}$ is $\{0\}$?
Aug 9, 2017 at 17:17 vote accept Rahul Raju Pattar
Dec 7, 2016 at 15:41 comment added Denis Serre @ მამუკა ჯიბლაძე . On every compact subset, a distribution is of finite order, by definition.
Dec 7, 2016 at 15:31 comment added მამუკა ჯიბლაძე @Bazin Is finiteness obvious? Theoretically there could exist some infinite linear combinations of derivatives at zero which converge for every $\phi$...
Dec 7, 2016 at 13:30 comment added Bazin Once you know that the support of $\hat T$ is $\{0\}$, you are done: in fact, $\hat T$ is a (finite) linear combination of derivatives of the Dirac mass at 0, whose inverse Fourier transforms are monomials.
Dec 7, 2016 at 12:11 history edited Denis Serre CC BY-SA 3.0
added 200 characters in body
Dec 6, 2016 at 14:19 history answered Denis Serre CC BY-SA 3.0