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Let $a_{k},b_{k}>0$,show that $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\dfrac{b_{k}(b_{1}+b_{2}+\cdots+b_{k})}{a_{1}+a_{2}+\cdots+a_{k}}<2\sum_{i=1}^{n}\dfrac{b^2_{i}}{a_{i}}\tag{1}$$

I known prove $b_{k}=1$,because it become $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\dfrac{k}{a_{1}+a_{2}+\cdots+a_{k}}<2\sum_{i=1}^{n}\dfrac{1}{a_{i}}$$ see mathstack

But How prove $(1)$?

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  • $\begingroup$ What makes you think the inequality holds? $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 17, 2016 at 11:04
  • $\begingroup$ It is said from artofproblemsolving.com/community/c6h1289401_inequality $\endgroup$
    – math110
    Commented Aug 17, 2016 at 11:16
  • $\begingroup$ I find the question very nice, but typically such questions seem to be better suited for math.SE -- hence I voted to put it on hold. $\endgroup$
    – Suvrit
    Commented Aug 17, 2016 at 18:28

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