Let $\Gamma$ be a discrete group.
Q: If $l^\infty(\Gamma)\rtimes \Gamma=l^\infty(\Gamma)\rtimes_r \Gamma$ canonically, can we conclude that $\Gamma$ is an exact group?
The converse implication is well-known and if we replace $l^\infty(\Gamma)$ by $l^\infty(\Gamma)/C_0(\Gamma)$ we have indeed an affirmative answer to the question. The latter fact can be found in Section 5 of "Ghostbusting and property A" by Roe and Willett or Theorem 5.6 in http://arxiv.org/pdf/1603.01829.pdf