I can't determine a sign of an integral written below and it has hit a dead end.
My setting is rather special. Let $a\in(0,1)$ be a given constant and $(x_{\varepsilon},y_{\varepsilon})\in[0,a)\times[0,a)$ be a given sequence such that $(x_{\varepsilon},y_{\varepsilon})\to(a,a)$ as $\varepsilon\to0$. Assume that $f,g:[0,1]\times[0,1]\to\mathbb{R}$ are continuous functions satisying the following conditions: (1) $f(a,z)>g(a,z)$ for all $z\in[0,a)$, (2) $f(a,a)=g(a,a)$
Then, what I want to know is a sign of $\lim_{\varepsilon\to0}I(\varepsilon)$, where $$ I(\varepsilon):=\int_{0}^{x_{\varepsilon}-\varepsilon}\frac{f(x_{\varepsilon},z)}{(x_{\varepsilon}-z)^{3/2}}dz-\int_{0}^{y_{\varepsilon}-\varepsilon}\frac{g(y_{\varepsilon},z)}{(y_{\varepsilon}-z)^{3/2}}dz. $$
Formally, we know $$ I(0)=\int_{0}^{a}\frac{f(a,z)-g(a,z)}{(a-z)^{3/2}}dz>0, $$ but we cannot prove at least by some convergence theorems, e.g., dominated convergence theorem, Fatou's Lemma and so on.
I'm glad if you give some ideas, solutions or examples such that a sign of $I$ is not determined if exists.