Consider the sphere $\mathbb{S}^n$ embedded in $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$. Let $N$ be the north pole of the sphere and $S$ the south pole. Every point on $\mathbb{S}^n \backslash \{N,S\}$ is defined uniquely using the exponential map by $(r,v)$, where $0<r< \pi/2$ is geodesic distance from the north pole and $v$ is a unit vector in $T_N\mathbb{S}^n$. In the following, we use these coordinates. Note that the equator is then $\{(r,v) |r = \pi/2 \}$. Let $f$ be a differentiable function on the equator of the sphere. Define $F:M \backslash \{N,S\} \to \mathbb{R}$ by $F(r,v) = f(\pi/2,v)$. Now, $rF$ is a differentiable function on $\mathbb{S}^n \backslash S$.
Claim Every differentiable function on the $\mathbb{S}^n \backslash S$ can be obtained as a function of functions of the above type.
I came across this claim on pg. 337 of the following paper (in a slightly more general context, but for me understanding it on the sphere is good enough) http://projecteuclid.org/euclid.jmsj/1261060588. My questions are: How to prove this? and What is the idea behind this claim?. The author states that "this is the idea of the normal coordinates", perhaps this is the key?
Thanks in advance for your help!