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Jun 4, 2014 at 6:52 vote accept Michael Pinkard
S Jun 3, 2014 at 8:34 history unlocked CommunityBot
S Jun 3, 2014 at 8:34 history locked CommunityBot
S Jun 3, 2014 at 8:34 history closed Will Jagy
Igor Belegradek
Ryan Budney
Deane Yang
Stefan Kohl
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Jun 3, 2014 at 0:49 answer added Jaan timeline score: 1
Jun 3, 2014 at 0:19 comment added Ryan Budney This looks like a simple change of coordinates argument if I'm understanding the question.
Jun 2, 2014 at 23:48 review Close votes
Jun 3, 2014 at 8:34
Jun 2, 2014 at 23:47 comment added David Roberts One obvious description is that the sphere S^n minus the south pole is diffeomorphic (by definition) to R^n, so ... but I guess this is not what you want.
Jun 2, 2014 at 23:32 comment added S. Carnahan By partition of unity, we may restrict to a small neighborhood of a meridian. Then you are claiming that any function on $\mathbb{R}^{n-1} \times \mathbb{R}$ is a "function of functions" of the form $(\vec{x}, y) \mapsto y f(\vec{x})$. You just need to make the term "function of functions" precise.
Jun 2, 2014 at 22:22 comment added Qfwfq I don't understand the claim, as it is written now.
Jun 2, 2014 at 22:17 history asked Michael Pinkard CC BY-SA 3.0