I am looking for a proof of a well-known fact, whose proof must be very easy, though I've been struggling to find it. Let $\Delta$ be the map from real-valued functions of a real variable, given by $(\Delta g)(x) = g(x+1/2)-g(x-1/2)$. Let $u(x)=0$ if $x\le 0$ and $u(x)=x$ otherwise. We set $0^0 =0$. Then, for smooth functions $h$, and $n>0$, $$(\Delta^n h)(0) = \frac{1}{(n-1)!}\int_{-\infty}^\infty h^{(n)}(x). (\Delta^n(u^{n-1}))(x)\,dx.$$ Here $h^{(n)}$ denotes the $n$th derivative of $h$.
I tried proving this by induction and also by using the exact integral remainder in Taylor's Theorem, but couldn't get either of these two obvious approaches to work. I seem to be missing some trick in manipulation.