I'm trying to evaluate an integral of the following form
$$\int \prod_i \left[ dx_i \,P(x_i) \right] \; f \Big( \frac{1}{N} \! \sum_{i=1}^N x_i \Big)$$
and I know that the distribution of $x$ is such that the central limit theorem is applicable, i.e., $\frac{1}{N} \sum_{i = 1}^N x_i \sim \mathcal{N} \big( \mathbb{E} (x), \frac{1}{N} \! \text{Var}(x) \big)$. Am I allowed to say the equation above is well approximated by
$$\int dz\, \mathcal{N} \big(z; \mathbb{E} (x), \frac{1}{N} \! \text{Var}(x) \big) \; f(z)$$
Thanks!