Let $X$ be a normal scheme with quotient singularities and $Y\subset X$ its singular locus. The first order deformations of $X$ are parametrized by $\mathcal{E}xt^{1}(\Omega_{X},\mathcal{O}_{X})$. This sheaf is supported on $Y$.
I would like to relate $\mathcal{E}xt^{1}(\Omega_{X},\mathcal{O}_{X})$ and $\mathcal{E}xt^{1}(\Omega_{Y},\mathcal{O}_{Y})$ (here I am considering first order deformations of $Y$ as an abstract scheme not its embedded deformations as a subscheme of $X$). To do this I am thinking to consider the conormal exact sequence $$\mathcal{I}_{Y}/\mathcal{I}_{Y}^{2}\rightarrow \Omega_{X|Y}\rightarrow\Omega_{Y}\mapsto 0$$ Applying $\mathcal{H}om(-,\mathcal{O}_{Y})$ we get $$0\mapsto \mathcal{H}om(\Omega_{Y},\mathcal{O}_{Y})\rightarrow \mathcal{H}om(\Omega_{X|Y},\mathcal{O}_{Y})\rightarrow \mathcal{H}om(\mathcal{I}_{Y}/\mathcal{I}_{Y}^{2},\mathcal{O}_{Y})\rightarrow \mathcal{E}xt^{1}(\Omega_{Y},\mathcal{O}_{Y})\rightarrow \mathcal{E}xt^{1}(\Omega_{X|Y},\mathcal{O}_{Y})\rightarrow \mathcal{E}xt^{1}(\mathcal{I}_{Y}/\mathcal{I}_{Y}^{2},\mathcal{O}_{Y})\rightarrow ....$$ Is there any reason why one should have $\mathcal{E}xt^{1}(\mathcal{I}_{Y}/\mathcal{I}_{Y}^{2},\mathcal{O}_{Y}) = 0$ or $\mathcal{H}om(\mathcal{I}_{Y}/\mathcal{I}_{Y}^{2},\mathcal{O}_{Y}) = 0$ ?