Let $X$ be a K3 surface (algebraic, complex). An involution $\sigma:X\rightarrow X$ is called non-symplectic if it acts trivially on $H^{2,0}(X)=\Bbb{C}\omega_X$ $\ $ (where $\omega_X$ is any nowhere vanishing 2-form), i.e. if $\sigma^\ast\omega_X=-\omega_X$.
Now, the Picard group can be identified with the lattice $S_X=\{x\in H^2(X,\Bbb{Z}): \ x\cdot\omega_X = 0 \}$.
Denote by $S(\sigma)=\{x\in H^2(X,\Bbb{Z}): \ \sigma^\ast x = x \}$ the invariant lattice.
It is clear that $S(\sigma)\subset S_X$ (recall that $\sigma^\ast$ is an isometry). My question is whether the equality holds, and if it is an easy fact to prove.