Is the following inequality known? I believe it's true, but I could find no reference.
For any convex body $C$ in the plane we have $$\left(4-\frac{8}{\pi}\right)area(C)\leq > diam(C)(per(C)-2diam(C)).$$
If true, this would be tight, with equality when $C$ is a disk. If it turns out not to be true, then it still makes sense to look for the best constant with the $area(C)$ term.
The following similar inequality $diam(C)(per(C)-2diam(C))\leq\frac{4}{\sqrt3}area(C)$ (equality when $C$ is an equilateral triangle) is definitely known and is proven here.