I am reading the paper
G. A. Edgar, A long James space, in: Measure Theory, Oberwolfach 1979, Lectures Notes in Math. 794, Springer-Verlag (1980) pp. 31-37.
and I am pretty confused by the remarks after the proof of Proposition 3.
Is it clear that $J(\omega_1)$ is of codimension 1 in $J(\omega_1)^{** }$ (via the canonical map) in the same way as the (usual) James space $J$ is of codimension 1 in $J^{** }$?
Btw. I posted this question at MathStack but it has not been answered.