Let $(X,\mathcal{F},\mu)$ be a measure space and let $T:X\to X$ be an ergodic measure-preserving transformation. We assume that $T$ satisfies the property that if $B \in \mathcal{F}$ and $T^{-1}B \subseteq B$, then $B = T^{-1}B \, (\text{mod } \mu)$. Consider a set $A \in \mathcal{F}$ with $0 < \mu(A) < +\infty$ for which the following holds: $$ \int_A \left( \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \chi_A \circ T^k \right)^2 d\mu \leq \lambda \left( \int_A \left( \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \chi_A \circ T^k \right) d\mu \right)^2, \quad \forall n \geq 1, $$ for some constant $\lambda > 0$. Under these assumptions, we aim to establish the existence of a sequence of constants $(\theta_n)_n$ increasing to infinity such that: $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{\theta_n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \mu(B \cap T^{-k} C) = \mu(B) \mu(C), \quad \forall B,C \in \mathcal{F}, \text{ with } B,C \subseteq A. $$ I believe this relates to the concept of weak mixing. While attempting to construct a sequence $(\theta_n)_n$, I considered using $\theta_n = \frac{1}{\mu(A)^2}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\mu(A\cap T^{-k}A)$. However, I am having difficulty proving the limit. Could you please assist me with this? Thank you!
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$\begingroup$ Assuming $\chi_A$ is the indicator for $A$, (I think) then $\theta_n$ can be taken $n$ and $\lim_{n\to\infty}n^{-1}\sum_{i=1}^n\mu(B\cap T^{-i}C)=\mu(B)\mu(C)$ by some form of mean ergodic theorem. I believe that this condition is called strong mixing rather than weak mixing, but I am not completely sure. You could check out chapters 8 and 9 in the book Operator Theoretic Aspects of Ergodic Theory by Eisner et al., there should be plenty of results that would answer your question. $\endgroup$– DaanCommented Nov 5 at 8:34
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1$\begingroup$ @Daan Thank you for your suggestion, but if we take that $ \mu(X) < \infty $, then by the Mean Ergodic Theorem, we have $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \mu(B \cap T^{-k} C) = \frac{\mu(B) \mu(C)}{\mu(X)}. $$ However, if $ \mu(X) = \infty $, the Ergodic Theorem implies that $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \mu(B \cap T^{-k} C) = 0. $$ In this case, I would like to construct a sequence $ (\theta_n)_n $ such that $$ \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{\theta_n} \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \mu(B \cap T^{-k} C) = \mu(B) \mu(C), $$ when $ \mu(X) = \infty $. $\endgroup$– DenOfZeroCommented Nov 5 at 9:14
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$\begingroup$ @DenOfZero Doesn't ergodicity imply "if $B \in \mathcal{F}$ and $T^{-1}B \subseteq B$ then $B = T^{-1}B \, (\text{mod } \mu)$"? $\endgroup$– mathworker21Commented Nov 8 at 3:40
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$\begingroup$ @mathworker21 I don't think so sir. $\endgroup$– DenOfZeroCommented Nov 8 at 7:27
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$\begingroup$ The answer is yes. Transformations for which such a set exists are called by Aaronson "Rational ergodic" and his book in page 98 deals exactly with the property you are after. $\endgroup$– user103342Commented Nov 9 at 19:06
1 Answer
You can define $\phi_n=S_n(1_A)/\theta_n$ where $S_n(1_A)=\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}1_A\circ T^k$ and view $\phi_n$ as funcitons in $L^2(A,\mu)$.
The condition you mentioned gives that $\|\phi_n\|_2\leq \lambda$ for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$. Aaronson uses this and the Banach Zaks theorem to establish that the every (weak) sub-sequential limit of $\phi_n$ is $T$ invariant and since $T$ is ergodic the only possible limit is constant. In addition, the constant has to satisfy $$\mu(A)^2=\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_A \phi_nd\mu=c\int_Ad\mu=c\mu(A).$$
He concludes from this that $\phi_n$ converges weakly to $\mu(A)$ on $L^2(A,\mu)$.
Since $T$ is measure preserving, your condition also applies with $T$ replaces by $T^{-1}$ and thus $\psi_n=\frac{1}{\theta_n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}1_A\circ T^{-k}$ also converges weakly in $L^2(A,\mu)$ to $\mu(A)$.
Now let $\mathcal{B}\ni B\subset A$ and write $\varphi_n=S_n(1_B)/\theta_n$. We calculate, $$\frac{1}{\theta_n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\mu(A\cap T^{-k}B)=\int_A \varphi_n d\mu=\int 1_B\cdot \frac{\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}1_A\circ T^{-k}}{\theta_n}d\mu \xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{} \mu(A)\mu(B).$$
As $B\subset A$, for all $n\in\mathbb{N}$, $S_n(1_B)\leq S_n(1_A)$, thus $\sup_n\|\varphi_n\|_2\leq \lambda$. A similar application of the Banach- Saks theorem and ergodicity as in $\phi_n$ would give that $\psi_n$ converges weakly in $L^2(A,\mu)$ to $\lim_{n\to\infty}\int_A\varphi_nd\mu$, which we have shown to equal $\mu(B)$.
This gives that for all $\mathcal{B}\ni C\subset A$, $$\frac{1}{\theta_n}\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\mu(C\cap T^{-k}B)=\int 1_C\cdot \varphi_n d\mu\xrightarrow[n\to\infty]{}\mu(B)\mu(C).$$