Suppose we are given a six-functor formalism and a cartesian diagram $$\require{AMScd} \begin{CD} X @>\tilde{g}>> Z \\ @V \tilde{f} V V @V Vf V \\ Y @>g>> W\end{CD} \,.$$ There are two ways of defining a natural transformation $\tilde{g}_* \to \tilde{g}_* \tilde{f}^! \tilde{f}_!$. First, one can take the transformation $\operatorname{id} \to \tilde{f}^! \tilde{f}_!$ adjoint to the identity $\tilde{f}_! \to \tilde{f}_!$ and compose on the left with $\tilde{g}_*$ to get a transformation $\tilde{g}_* \to \tilde{g}_* \tilde{f}^! \tilde{f}_!$. Second, one can compose $\operatorname{id} \to f^! f_!$ on the right with $\tilde{g}_*$ to get a morphism $\tilde{g}_* \to f^! f_! \tilde{g}_*$, and then compose with the morphisms $f^! f_! \tilde{g}_*\to f^! g_* \tilde{f}_! \xrightarrow{\sim} \tilde{g}_* \tilde{f}^! \tilde{f}_!$ induced by base change.
Are these two natural transformations $\tilde{g}_* \to \tilde{g}_* \tilde{f}^! \tilde{f}_!$ necessarily equivalent?