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I think it is better to provide context in which the previous question Any formula or estimates the Green function for the Laplacian in $3D$ periodic box? has been raised.

The motivation is the following formula:

\begin{equation} u(x)=\frac{1}{4\pi}\int_G \nabla_y \frac{1}{\lvert x-y \rvert} \times \omega(y) \,d^3y +A(x) \text{ for } x \in G \end{equation} where $u : O \to \mathbb{R}^3$ is a divergence-free smooth vector field on some open set $O \subset \mathbb{R}^3$ and $G$ is another open set whose closure is compact in $O$. Also, $\omega:= \nabla \times u$, while $A(x) : G \to \mathbb{R}^3$ has harmonic functions as components.

My question is that, in the case $O=G=\mathbb{T}^3$ with periodic boundary conditions, does the above integral formula still hold as it is? Or do we have to modify it? At least I know from Hodge's Theorem that $A(x) : \mathbb{T}^3 \to \mathbb{R}^3$ becomes a "constant" vector. However, I am now sure about the integral itself.

Could anyone please help me?

Addition : if we are to apply the above integral formula to $\mathbb{T}^3$, I agree that things become a bit subtle. For me, I regard the domain of integration as the unit cube $[0,1]^3$ and regard $x,y$ to be contained in the cube. Then, $\lvert x-y \rvert^{-1}$ is NOT a periodic function but the integral is like a convolution between $\lvert y\rvert^{-1}$ and $\omega(y)$. So, I think periodicity is retained after all..

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    $\begingroup$ Maybe I'm missing something, but I doubt the formula still works as written, with a Green's function that doesn't respect the boundary conditions. To prove the formula, you have to perform some integrations by parts, and if you use a Green's function that respects the periodic boundary conditions, all the surface terms vanish and the formula holds (for divergence-free $u$). But written as is, I don't see the boundary terms vanishing. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2023 at 17:10
  • $\begingroup$ Hmm..can't we just understand the integral as some kind of convolution and just pass the derivatives to $\omega$, by the property of convolution? Convolution of any function with a periodic function is periodic of as well... $\endgroup$
    – Isaac
    Commented Jul 14, 2023 at 17:27
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    $\begingroup$ How would you define $|x-y|$ when $x,y$ are both points in $\mathbb{T}^3$? $\endgroup$
    – Terry Tao
    Commented Jul 14, 2023 at 17:34
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    $\begingroup$ You have to be careful at the boundaries - if you just declare the Green's function to be the periodic continuation of what it is on $\mathbb{T}^3 $, then in general it'll have creases at the boundary that give you extra terms when acting with the derivatives. It has to be a sufficiently smooth periodic continuation. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 14, 2023 at 18:36
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    $\begingroup$ You can't have it both ways - if you integrate only over the box, then you can't invoke the periodicity of $u$ to restore periodicity of the integral; if you do integrate over all copies, then yes, you are restoring periodicity by essentially using the method of images to construct the periodic Green's function. Then, the Green's function effectively isn't the simple $1/|x-y|$ anymore, and additionally you have to deal with the fact that this naive construction is still ill-defined - it diverges, as it should, since that is the signature of the zero mode, which has yet to be accounted for. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 15, 2023 at 15:44

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The integral formula as written does not continue to hold. Let's construct a counterexample. First, note that, in general, the $i$-th component of the integral in question is $$ \begin{equation} \left[ \frac{1}{4\pi}\int_{\mathbb{T}^3 } \nabla_y \frac{1}{\lvert x-y \rvert} \times \omega(y) \,d^3y \right]_{i} = \frac{1}{4\pi}\int_{\mathbb{T}^3 } d^3y\ \left( \nabla^{y}_{i} u_j - \nabla^{y}_{j} u_i\right)\ \nabla^{y}_{j} \frac{1}{|x-y|} \\ =\frac{1}{4\pi}\int_{\mathbb{T}^3 } d^3y\ \nabla^{y}_{j} \left( \frac{1}{|x-y|} \nabla^{y}_{i} u_j - u_i \nabla^{y}_{j} \frac{1}{|x-y|} \right) + \frac{1}{4\pi}\int_{\mathbb{T}^3 } d^3y\ u_i \ \Delta^{y} \frac{1}{|x-y|} \\ =\frac{1}{4\pi}\int_{\partial \mathbb{T}^3 } d\Sigma^{y} \cdot \left( \frac{1}{|x-y|} \nabla^{y}_{i} u - u_i \nabla^{y} \frac{1}{|x-y|} \right) + u_i (x) \end{equation} $$ where $\nabla_{j} u_j =0$ has been used. Now, specialize to a simple example, $u_2 =u_3 =0$, $u_1 = -\cos y_2 \Rightarrow \nabla^{y}_{2} u_1 = \sin y_2 $ (I'm using the torus $[-\pi ,\pi]^3 $) and let's consider $i=2$. Then, in the large parenthesis on the last line, only the first term is nonzero, and, consequently, only the boundary surfaces perpendicular to the 1-direction contribute, i.e., all that remains is $$ \left[ \frac{1}{4\pi}\int_{\mathbb{T}^3 } \nabla_y \frac{1}{\lvert x-y \rvert} \times \omega(y) \,d^3y \right]_{2} = \hspace{5cm} \\ \hspace{4cm} \frac{1}{4\pi} \int_{-\pi }^{\pi } dy_2 \int_{-\pi }^{\pi } dy_3 \ \sin y_2 \left( \left. \frac{1}{|x-y|} \right| _{y_1 =\pi } - \left. \frac{1}{|x-y|} \right| _{y_1 =-\pi } \right) $$ If the given formula were to hold, this should be at most a constant, but if we plot it (times $4\pi $, I dropped that factor) at $x_1 =1$, $x_3 =0 $ as a function of $x_2 $, the result is

Boundary term plot

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