This question is about the content of this paper by J. Bourgain, N. Katz, T. Tao.
In the final step (page 18) of the proof of Szemerédi-Trotter type theorem, we have already known
$$|A''+A''|\lesssim N^{\frac{1}{2}+C\epsilon}$$
Similarly, by the Balog-Szemerédi-Gowers Theorem, there exists $A^{\star\star}\subseteq A'\setminus\{0\}$ with $|A^{\star\star}|\gtrsim N^{\frac{1}{2}-C\epsilon}$ such that
$$|A^{\star\star}\cdot A^{\star\star}|\lesssim N^{\frac{1}{2}+C\epsilon}$$
My question is why we have $A^{\star\star}=A''$. Do I understand it wrong?
Actually, I have tried to let the above $A^{\star\star}$ be a subset of $A’'\setminus\{0\}$ (by using the Balog-Szemerédi-Gowers Theorem) but it seems that we don’t have (or I cannot prove)
$$\left|\left\{(t,x_0,x_1)\in B\times A\times A’’:(1-t)x_0+tx_1\in A,t\neq0,1\right\}\right|\gtrsim N^{\frac{3}{2}-C\epsilon}$$
(The similar inequality (16) for $A’'$)
Could anyone help me understand the proof? Thanks for any help!