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Suppose we have a Brownian motion $X$ with $X_0>0$ and drift $\mu$ conditioned to be less than a barrier $R$ which has behaviour $R_0 = r$, $dR_s = \nu \, ds$, where $\mu > \nu > 0$.

Can we show that $X$ is positive recurrent in the sense that: $$ \mathbb{E}[\inf\{t>0: X_t \notin (0,\infty)\}] < \infty $$

My instinct is that it should be true, but I truly don't know where I would begin proving this. This paper https://arxiv.org/pdf/1710.02350.pdf provides the distribution of the maximum of a Brownian motion conditioned to not hit some fixed lower boundary, but it's not clear to me how I can utilise this result.

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  • $\begingroup$ Yes, but this is not just positively drifted Brownian motion, but it is also conditioned not to hit $R_t$. I mean, supposing $R_t$ was constant, the stopping time of Brownian motion with drift conditioned not to hit some constant upper barrier hitting zero (clearly?) has finite expectation, so the question is in some sense 'what condition on the speed of the barrier means that it is still recursive'. Constant is slow enough, but is linear speed? $\endgroup$
    – user1598
    Commented Jul 10, 2023 at 9:47

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It is transient. Consider the process $Y_t=R_t-X_t$; it is a Brownian motion on the positive half-line with a constant negative drift $\nu-\mu$. The probability that it does not hit the origin up to time $T$ can be calculated from the explicit formula found e.g. in this answer. As $T\to\infty$, this probability, given the process up to time $t$, is proportional to $Y_te^{(\mu-\nu)Y_t}.$ This is the Radon-Nikodym derivative of the conditioned process with respect to the unconditioned one. So, Girsanov theorem gives that $Y_t$ conditioned to never hit the origin satisfies the SDE $$ dY_t=\frac{1}{Y_t}dt+dB_t, $$ the constant drifts cancelling out exactly. I.e., $Y_t$ is a Bessel process of dimension $d=3$, $Y_t\stackrel{\mathcal{D}}{=}|Z_t|$, where $Z_t$ is the 3D standard Brownian motion (see e.g. these notes). In these terms, you are asking about the first time $t$ such that $|Z_t|=C+\nu t$, with $C=X_0$. It is clear by Brownian scaling that with positive probability, there's no such $t$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Could you expand on what you mean with your Brownian scaling argument? $\endgroup$
    – user1598
    Commented Jul 27, 2023 at 15:42

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