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Let $C$ be a subgroup of a group $A$ such that $C\cong A/\{\pm1\}$ and $D$ be a subgroup of $B$ such that $D\cong B/\{\pm1\}$. Let $\pi:A\to B$ be a group homomorphism, and let $\pi$ induce a surjective group homomorphism (say) $\pi^*$ on the quotient groups. Now, clearly $C$ has index $2$ in $A$, $D$ has index $2$ in $B$, and $C$ is a subgroup of $\pi^{-1}(D)$. Then can we say that $\pi^{-1}(D)$ has index $2$ in $A$ as well? Eventually, I am trying to show that $C\cong\pi^{-1}(D)$. So, if my above argument is not correct then how can I show the desired isomorphism?

Edit: Let me mention the original groups and group homomorphism that I am working with. In the original problem $A=(\mathcal{O}/3^m)^{\times}$, $B=(\mathcal{O}/3)^{\times}$, where $\mathcal{O}=\mathbb{Z}[\sqrt{-3}]$ and $\pi:A\to B$ is defined as $a+b\sqrt{-3}+3^m\mathcal{O}\mapsto a+b\sqrt{-3}+3\mathcal{O}$.

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  • $\begingroup$ You should clarify the assumptions. Assume explicitly that $C$ and $D$ have index $2$ in $A$ and $B$. Isomorphism is not sufficient: for example, the quotient of $\mathbb{U} = \{z \in \mathbb{C} : |z|=1\}$ by $\{-1,1\}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{U}$ itself. Do you assume that $\pi$ is an isomorphism? If you have only an homomorphism, for example the constant homomorphism which sends $A$ on $1_B$, it will not help. $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 10, 2023 at 18:39
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    $\begingroup$ I cannot see how to make sense of "$A/\{\pm 1\}$" for a group $A$. $\endgroup$
    – YCor
    Commented Jun 10, 2023 at 18:43
  • $\begingroup$ @Ycor Kindly check the edited post. $\endgroup$
    – Anish Ray
    Commented Jun 10, 2023 at 18:52
  • $\begingroup$ @ChristopheLeuridan Kindly check the edited post. $\endgroup$
    – Anish Ray
    Commented Jun 10, 2023 at 18:52
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    $\begingroup$ I think what @YCor is asking is: if $G$ is an abstract group, what is the element of $G$ you call $-1$ ? $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 11, 2023 at 17:27

1 Answer 1

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Partial answer and remark

I assume that $[A:C] = [B:D] = 2$, since this may not follow from the isomorphisms $C \simeq A/\{-1,1\}$, $D \simeq B/\{-1,1\}$.

The morphism $\pi$ is surjective, like the canonical projection on $B/D$, denoted by $p_{B/D}$ in what follows, so $\mathrm{Im}(p_{B/D} \circ \pi) = B/D$. But $\mathrm{Ker}(p_{B/D} \circ \pi) = \pi^{-1}(D)$. Hence, $A/\pi^{-1}(D) \simeq B/D$, so $[A:\pi^{-1}(D)] = [B:D] = 2$.

Let $s : \mathcal{O} \to \mathcal{O}$ defined by $s(x)=x^2$. Then $s(A)$ and $s(B)$ are subgroups of $A$ and $B$, and they are contained in every subgroup of $A$ and $B$ with index $2$. I wonder whether $[A:s(A)]$ and $[B:s(B)]$ are larger than $2$ or not.

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  • $\begingroup$ Why doesn't $[A:C]=2$ follow from the isomorphism as mentioned in the question? $\endgroup$
    – Anish Ray
    Commented Jun 10, 2023 at 21:25
  • $\begingroup$ @AnishRay, re, that was already remarked (by @‍CristopheLeuridan) in a comment to your question. $\endgroup$
    – LSpice
    Commented Jun 11, 2023 at 3:42
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    $\begingroup$ @LSpice I see. I guess I should probably mention that $A$ and $B$ are finite groups. $\endgroup$
    – Anish Ray
    Commented Jun 11, 2023 at 4:52

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