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Are there any results that allow us to characterize affine schemes via morphisms to/from other schemes?

Suppose we have a category $\mathcal{C}$ which is equivalent to $\mathbf{Sch}$, the category of schemes. We do not know anything about the equivalence. We want to find the objects $X \in \mathcal{C}$ such that these objects are equivalent exactly to the affine schemes in $\mathcal{C}$.

Is this possible? If not, can we modify the problem slightly (e.g. replace $\mathbf{Sch}$ with a reasonable subcategory, or assume the existence of some reasonable functors) to get an answer? Or is the impossibility fundamental?

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    $\begingroup$ The functor point of view is precisely viewing a scheme $X$ as a functor from the category of rings to the category of sets, which maps a ring $R$ to the set $X(R)$ of $R$-valued points. $\endgroup$
    – Z. M
    Commented Feb 21, 2023 at 10:41
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    $\begingroup$ Yes, I'm well aware of the functor of points PoV. But what would a functor representing an affine scheme look like? $\endgroup$
    – xuq01
    Commented Feb 21, 2023 at 13:38
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    $\begingroup$ Is this what you're asking: Given a category which is known to be equivalent (or isomorphic?) to the category of schemes, but we're ignorant of the equivalence, can we describe the objects equivalent to those which are corresponding to the affine schemes? That is, a category of schemes is considered in isolation? Or may we assume knowledge of some reasonable functors like the forgetful functor to topological spaces? (Not that I necessarily knew how to answer even that...) $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Commented Feb 22, 2023 at 8:28
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    $\begingroup$ I think this will be very relevant: mathoverflow.net/q/56887 $\endgroup$
    – Ben
    Commented Feb 22, 2023 at 8:48
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    $\begingroup$ @xuq01 It would be good if you could reformulate the question yourself! As it stands it is quite unclear what a negative answer would look like. A question which can't be answered in negative is probably not a good question! $\endgroup$
    – Zhen Lin
    Commented Feb 27, 2023 at 10:32

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As pointed out in the comments, this answer implies much more: for a category $\mathscr C$ equivalent to $\mathbf{Sch}_{/X}$ for any $X \in \mathbf{Sch}$, there is an explicit formula producing a functor $F_{\mathscr C} \colon \mathscr C \to \mathbf{Sch}$ that only depends on the equivalence type of $\mathscr C$, and such that for $F_{\mathbf{Sch}_{/X}} \colon \mathbf{Sch}_{/X} \to \mathbf{Sch}$ is naturally isomorphic to the forgetful functor (in an explicit way).

In particular, if $\mathscr C$ is equivalent to $\mathbf{Sch}$ (the case $X = \operatorname{Spec} \mathbf Z$), this gives an explicit equivalence $F \colon \mathscr C \stackrel\sim\to \mathbf{Sch}$ that only depends on $\mathscr C$ up to equivalence. So if you want to know whether an object $X \in \mathscr C$ 'is' affine (say under any equivalence $\mathscr C \stackrel\sim\to \mathbf{Sch}$), it suffices to check that $F(X) \in \mathbf{Sch}$ is affine.

Of course this is not very useful in practice, since the construction of $F$ is a bit involved, and then you still need a criterion to check whether $F(X)$ is affine.

If you restrict to quasi-compact $k$-schemes, then $X$ is affine if and only if the infinite product $X^{\mathbf N}$ exists in $\mathbf{Sch}_{/k}$; see this answer. On the other hand, it is certainly too optimistic to hope that a scheme $X$ is affine if and only if $X^I$ exists for every set $I$. For instance, if we define $X = \coprod_{p \text{ prime}} \operatorname{Spec} \mathbf F_p$, then $X \to \operatorname{Spec} \mathbf Z$ is a monomorphism, so $X^I \cong X$ for any nonempty set $I$. But $X$ is not affine since it is not quasi-compact.

It would be nice to find a clean criterion in general, but this requires some genuine new ideas. I have some thoughts, but in my opinion, this is maybe not the most pressing question in algebraic geometry...

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