(I feel like I might have to apologise in advance for this question, but oh well..)
I just rediscovered a comment from Asaf K here on MO that states that full Replacement is not needed for Borel Determinacy (BD), a fact which flies in the face of everything I feel I've been led to believe. The Wikipedia article on the set-theoretic niceties is stated perfectly correctly, but a shallow reading might miss (as I did) the fact there's wriggle room between ZC (Zermelo with Choice), which is insufficient, and ZFC, which is sufficient. For a set theorist, the gap might be silly, but not when it comes to models.
Some Replacement is needed, but not unboundedly-large instances, it seems. Asaf says that it only requires that $\beth_{\omega_1}$ exists. So is this my question: for which $V_\alpha$ does BD hold? Is it just those ordinals $\alpha$ so that $\beth_{\omega_1} \in V_\alpha$? Or is there a different characterisation? How about models of the form $H_\alpha$? Then one gets models of some set theory that is stronger than ZC, but weaker than ZFC, in which BD holds. Such information would be good to add to WP, for instance, but also to draw the sort of fine line that Reverse Mathematicians like to see.
As Noah points out in the comments, I'm making a bit of a muddle here. But I think what I want to know is how much replacement over ZC does one actually need to prove BD. François indicates that something like Replacement for functions with countable domain is sufficient, but not tight. I would be willing to countenance arguments of the sort that justify Dependent Choice in an otherwise choice-free setting, in order to extrinsically justify countable Replacement aside from knowing it proves BD.