In the book: Drozd, Y.A., Kirichenko, V.V.: Finite dimensional algebras. Springer, Berlin (1994), there is an exercise which suggests a positive answer to the next question, and Ryszard R. Andruszkiewicz gives a counterexample:
Let $A,B$ be two arbitrary finite-dimensional algebras (spaces with associative laws) over a field $K$, and let $\overset{\sim}{A}:=\{(a,\alpha)\mid a\in A, \alpha\in K\}$, it is a well-known method of adjoining an identity to an arbitrary algebra $A$.
$$(a_1, α_1) · (a_2, α_2) = (a_1 · a_2 + α_2a_1 + α_1a_2, α_1α_2)$$ $$(a_1, α_1) + (a_2, α_2) = (a_1 + a_2, α_1 + α_2)$$ $$\forall\beta\in K:\beta· (a, α) = (βa, βα)$$
$\overset{\sim}{A}$ is an algebra with identity $(0, 1)$, in the same way we will define $\overset{\sim}{B}$.
The exercise: $A\cong B$ if and only if $\overset{\sim}{A}\cong\overset{\sim}{B}$.
Ryszard R. Andruszkiewicz's counterexample: Surprise at adjoining an identity to an algebra.
Andruszkiewicz's counterexample is, and if I understand correctly, $A$ is not isomorphic to $B$ because an isomorphism of algebras preserves both the left and right identities, but $A$ has neither a right identity nor an identity while $B$ has a right identity.
Which shows that there might be an error in the exercise.
Is it true that there is an error in the exercise?