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I've started reading about shape optimization. Most of the concepts I've encountered so far (such as the shape derivatives of domain and boundary integrals and the corresponding) seem to be complex, but turned out to be quite simple. However, I really struggle to wrap my head around the different notions of "derivatives" for a "shape-dependent" function $y$.

The setting is as follows: Let

  • $d\in\mathbb N$;
  • $D\subseteq\mathbb R^d$ be open and $\mathcal A\subseteq 2^D$ with $D\in\mathcal A$;
  • $E_\Omega\subseteq\mathbb R^{\Omega}$ be a $\mathbb R$-Banach space for $\Omega\in\mathcal A$ and $E:=\bigcup_{\Omega\in\mathcal A}E_\Omega$;
  • $y:\mathcal A\to E$ with $$y(\Omega)\in E_\Omega\;\;\;\text{for all }\Omega\in\mathcal A;\tag1$$
  • $\tau>0$, $T_t$ be a $C^1$-diffeomorphism from $U$ onto an open subset of $\mathbb R^d$ for $t\in[0,\infty)$ and $$V:=\bigcup_{t\in[0,\:\tau)}T_t(D);$$
  • $v:[0,\tau)\times V\to\mathbb R^d$ be differentiable in the second argument with $$v\left(t,T_t(x)\right)=\frac{\partial T}{\partial t}(t,x)\;\;\;\text{for all }(t,x)\in[0,\tau)\times D;\tag2$$
  • $\Omega\in\mathcal A$ and $\Omega_t:=T_t(\Omega)$ for $t\in[0,\tau)$.

Now the "shape derivative* is defined as follows:

Definition 1 (shape derivative) Let $Y:[0,\tau)\to E_d$ with $$\left.Y(t)\right|_{\Omega_t}=y(\Omega_t)\;\;\;\text{for all }t\in[0,\tau).$$ Then $y$ is called shape differentiable at $\Omega$ in direction $v$ if $Y$ is Fréchet differentiable at $0$. In that case, $$y'(\Omega;v):=\left.Y'(0)\right|_{\Omega}\tag4.$$ (Please note that we most probably need to assume a certain regularity (at least continuity) of the time-dependence of $Y$ (and most probably of $T$ as well). I've omitted them, cause it's part of my question what we need to assume precisely.)

The second definition is given by the "material derivative*:

Definition 2 (material derivative) $\dot y(\Omega;v)\in E_\Omega$ is called **material derivative of $y$ at $\Omega$ in direciont$ v$ if $$y(\Omega_t)\circ\left.T_t\right|_{\Omega}\in E_\Omega\;\;\;\text{for all }t\in[0,\tau)\tag5$$ and $$[0,\tau)\to E_\Omega\;,\;\;\;t\mapsto y(\Omega_t)\circ\left.T_t\right|_{\Omega}\tag6$$ is Fréchet differentiable at $0$ with derivative equal to $\dot y(\Omega;v)\in E_\Omega$, i.e. $$\frac{y(\Omega_t)\circ\left.T_t\right|_{\Omega}-y(\Omega)}t\xrightarrow{t\to0+}\dot y(\Omega;v)\tag7.$$

Question 1: What do we need to assume in order to show that $(3)$ is well-defined, i.e. independent of the choice of $Y$?

Question 2: How can we relate the shape and material derivative?

I guess we need to assume that there is a continuous linear $$\iota_A:E_A\to E_D$$ for all $A\in\mathcal A$. Let $$y_t:=y(\Omega_t)\circ\left.T_t\right|_{\Omega}\;\;\;\text{for }t\in[0,\tau).$$ Then we could write $$\frac{Y(t)-Y(0)}t=\frac{Y(t)-\iota_\Omega y_t}t+\frac{\iota_\Omega y_t-Y(0)}t\;\;\;\text{for all }t\in(0,\tau)\tag8.$$ If the answer to question 1 is positive, then we could assume $$Y(t)=\iota_{\Omega_t}y(\Omega_t)\;\;\;\text{for all }t\in[0,\tau)\tag9$$ and, assuming $y$ has a material derivative at $\Omega$ in direction $v$, we could conclude $$\frac{\iota_\Omega y_t-Y(0)}t=\iota_\Omega\frac{y_t-y(\Omega)}t\xrightarrow{t\to0+}\iota_\Omega\dot y(\Omega;v)\tag{10}.$$


Note that there is a proof of the "shape-derivative identity" in this paper, but I think their proof is missing rigor and they seem to assume $E_\Omega$ is a closed subspace of $L^1(\Omega)$: enter image description here enter image description here enter image description here

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  • $\begingroup$ This is probably me being silly, but isn't the second definition just the first one with $E_\Omega=L^1(\Omega)$ for all $\Omega\in \mathcal{A}$? Is there a difference beyond the space in which you take the limit? $\endgroup$
    – DCM
    Commented Jul 22, 2020 at 18:22
  • $\begingroup$ @DCM No, it's not you. It's me being confused about these concepts. I've completely updated the question. Hopefully it makes more sense now. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Jul 22, 2020 at 19:19
  • $\begingroup$ @DCM Why did you delete your answer? $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Aug 3, 2020 at 5:53
  • $\begingroup$ I feared it would put other people off answering. I can reinstate it if you like :) $\endgroup$
    – DCM
    Commented Aug 3, 2020 at 18:05

1 Answer 1

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The classical material derivative $D\varphi/Dt$ of a test function $\varphi \in C_c^\infty(\mathbb{R}_+\times D)$ is obtained by setting

$$ \dfrac{D\varphi}{Dt}(x) := \dfrac{\partial\tilde\varphi}{\partial t}(0,x)\;\;\mbox{with}\;\; \tilde\varphi(t,x) = \varphi(t,T_t(x)) $$

for $x\in D$. Expanding out using the chain rule, we have

$$ \dfrac{D\varphi}{Dt}(x) = \dfrac{\partial \phi}{\partial t}(0,x)+ \sum_{i=1}^d v^i(x)\dfrac{\partial \phi}{\partial x^i}(0,x)\;\;(x\in D). $$

with $v(x) = \lim_{t\to 0}t^{-1}(T_t(x)-x)$. I'm imagining here that it's $(T_t)_{t>0}$ that has been prescribed, but one can go in the other way too (i.e. go from a vector field to a flow rather than a flow to a vector field).

The 'shape identity' is the natural generalisation of the formula above to distributions $y(\Omega_t)$ of the form

$$ \langle y(\Omega_t),\varphi\rangle=\int_{\Omega_t} y_{\Omega_t}(x)\varphi(x)\mathrm{d}x\;\;(\varphi\in C^\infty_c(D)) $$

with $y_{\Omega_t}\in L^1_\mathrm{loc}(\Omega_t)$ and $\Omega_t = T_t(\Omega)$. In this formulation $y_{\Omega_t}(x)$ is trying to be $\varphi(t,x)$ from the smooth formulation while the 'shape derivative' is trying to be $x\mapsto (t\mapsto y_{\Omega_t}(x))'(0)$.

Regarding your first question, it seems like the easiest ways to make everything work are:

  1. Regard everything as a distibution on $D$; or
  2. Make sure that $E_\Omega = \{f_{|\Omega}: f\in E_D\}$ for all $\Omega\in \mathcal{A}$, do what you need in $E_D$, then restrict back to $\Omega$.

These two approaches both let you form linear combinations and take limits 'normally', so remove the problems associated with everything living in different spaces. It's important to check with the second approach that the behavior of the limit in $\Omega$ doesn't depend on the extensions chosen, but there's a result in the reference which shows how to do that (i.e. by testing against a smooth bump supported in $\Omega$).

Regarding your comment about the reference assuming that $E_\Omega$ is closed in $L^1(\Omega)$; I'm not sure I agree - isn't the fact that quotients converge to something in $L^1$ just part of their definition?

As for minimum requirements, I think you at least want the quotients

$$ \dfrac{\langle y(\Omega_t)\circ T_t, \varphi\rangle - \langle y(\Omega),\varphi\rangle}{t}\;\;\mbox{and}\;\;\dfrac{ \langle y(\Omega_t),\varphi\rangle - \langle y(\Omega),\varphi\rangle}{t} $$

to converge as $t\to 0$ for all test functions $\varphi$, since these are what give you the distributional 'material' and 'shape' derivatives.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you for your answer. I think what you're doing is considering the "weak" versions of the material and shape derivative. They are defined in the same way as in the question, but the limits in the definition of the Fréchet derivatives have to be understood with respect to the weak topology. So, for example, $$\left\langle\frac{y(\Omega_t)\circ\left.T_t\right|_{\Omega}-y(\Omega)}t,\varphi\right\rangle\xrightarrow{t\to0+}\left\langle\dot y(\Omega;v),\varphi\right\rangle\tag{11}$$ for all $\varphi\in E_\Omega'$. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Jul 25, 2020 at 18:33
  • $\begingroup$ Now you've chosen $E_\Omega=L^1_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$ and I guess that weak convergence of a sequence $(f_n)_{n\in\mathbb N}\subseteq L^1_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$ to $f\in L^1_{\text{loc}}(\Omega)$ holds if and only if $$\int f_n\varphi\:{\rm d}\lambda^{\otimes d}\xrightarrow{n\to\infty}\int f\varphi\:{\rm d}\lambda^{\otimes d}\tag{12}$$ for all $\varphi\in C_c^\infty(\Omega)$ (I don't remember whether we need additional assumptions to show that). So, while useful for its own, the question for the "strong" derivatives in my post is still open. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Jul 25, 2020 at 18:33
  • $\begingroup$ Side note: You've used $\varphi\in C_c^\infty(D)$ instead of $\varphi\in C_c^\infty(\Omega)$. Could you elaborate on why this is important or at least useful? $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Jul 25, 2020 at 18:36
  • $\begingroup$ Taking $C^\infty_c(D)$ as the space of test functions seems sensible because it gives you a way to take linear combinations and limits of the $y(\Omega_t)$ in $\mathscr{D}'(D)$. The other way natural way to do this is to choose your $E$ functor $\Omega\mapsto E_\Omega$ to be one for which $E_\Omega = \{f_{|\Omega}: f\in E_D\}$ for all $\Omega\in \mathcal{A}$, at which point you can do the same in $E_D$ (although this latter approach requires you to check that your limits are independent of which extensions you choose - your reference does it like this). $\endgroup$
    – DCM
    Commented Jul 26, 2020 at 12:02
  • $\begingroup$ It took me a while before I could come back to this question. I think it's worth considering the pointwise analogue of the material/shape derivative which is considered here. I've asked a separate question for that: mathoverflow.net/q/371076/91890. It would be great if you could take a look. $\endgroup$
    – 0xbadf00d
    Commented Sep 7, 2020 at 10:17

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