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I have asked the following question at MSE and got one answer. Any further ideas are welcome:

Let $u=u(x,y), v=v(x,y) \in \mathbb{C}[x,y]$, with $\deg(u) \geq 2$ and $\deg(v) \geq 2$. Let $\lambda, \mu \in \mathbb{C}$.

Assume that the ideal generated by $u$ and $v$, $\langle u,v \rangle$, is a maximal ideal of $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$.

Is it true that $\langle u-\lambda, v-\mu \rangle$ is a maximal ideal of $\mathbb{C}[x,y]$?

My attempts to answer my question are:

(1) By Hilbert's Nullstellensatz, $\langle u,v \rangle= \langle x-a,y-b \rangle$, for some $a,b \in \mathbb{C}$, so $x-a=F_1u+G_1v$ and $y-b=F_2u+G_2v$, for some $F_1,G_1,F_2,G_2 \in \mathbb{C}[x,y]$. Then, $x=F_1u+G_1v+a$ and $y=F_2u+G_2v+b$.

(2) $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{\langle u,v \rangle}$ is a field (since $\langle u,v \rangle$ is maximal); actually, $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{\langle u,v \rangle}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{C}$. Is it true that $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{\langle u,v \rangle}$ is isomorphic to $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{\langle u-\lambda,v-\mu \rangle}$? In other words, is it true that $\frac{\mathbb{C}[x,y]}{\langle u-\lambda,v-\mu \rangle}$ is isomorphic to $\mathbb{C}$? See this question.

(3) If $\langle u-\lambda,v-\mu \rangle$ is not maximal, then it is contained in some maximal ideal: $\langle u-\lambda,v-\mu \rangle \subsetneq \langle x-c,y-d \rangle$, $c,d \in \mathbb{C}$. It is not difficult to see that $(u-\lambda)(c,d)=0$ and $(v-\mu)(c,d)=0$, so $u(c,d)-\lambda=0$ and $v(c,d)-\mu=0$, namely, $u(c,d)=\lambda$ and $v(c,d)=\mu$.

Remark: Is it possible that $\langle u-\lambda,v-\mu \rangle = \mathbb{C}[x,y]$? If so, then there exist $F,G \in \mathbb{C}[x,y]$ such that $F(u-\lambda)+G(v-\mu)=1$. Then at $(a,b)$ we get: $F(a,b)(-\lambda)+G(a,b)(-\mu)=1$ (since, by (1), $u(a,b)=0$ and $v(a,b)=0$).

Thank you very much!

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  • $\begingroup$ If we take $u=x-a, v=y-b$, then clearly the answer is yes (by Hilbert's Nullstellensatz), but what if not? $\endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jul 19, 2020 at 12:42
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    $\begingroup$ Geometrically (but imprecisely): maximality of the ideal means that the curves $u=0$ and $v=0$ intersect at a single point (and transversally). There is no hope that the same will hold for the curves $u=\lambda$ and $v=\mu$ for all $\lambda$ and $\mu$. $\endgroup$ Jul 19, 2020 at 16:37
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the explanation. $\endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jul 19, 2020 at 17:12

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While it may be, in general it is not. Consider as an example, $u=x+y+yp(x), v=x+yp(x)$ where$ \deg p(x)\geq 2$. Then $(u,v)=(x,y)$ and so maximal. Notice that $u=y+v$. So, $$(u-a, v-b)=(u-v+b-a, v-b)=(y+b-a, v-b)=(y+b-a, x-b+(a-b)p(x))$$ and so most pairs of values of $a,b$, it is not maximal, as long as $\deg (x+(a-b)p(x))\geq 2$.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thank you very much! $\endgroup$
    – user237522
    Jul 19, 2020 at 15:12
  • $\begingroup$ Isn't $(y+b-a,v-b) = (y+b-a, x-b+(a-b)p(x))$? I think there should be a $-b$, but of course it doesn't matter for the conclusion. $\endgroup$ Jul 19, 2020 at 16:12
  • $\begingroup$ @ZachTeitler I tried editing, in particular to get the last term after $=$ to come before `and so ..', but for some reason it went back to this form, no idea why. $\endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Jul 19, 2020 at 17:04
  • $\begingroup$ I simplified the example a little bit, I hope you don't mind. $\endgroup$ Jul 19, 2020 at 19:02
  • $\begingroup$ @ZachTeitler I knew this, but I wrote the slightly more complicated one only because the OP wanted the degrees to be at least two . $\endgroup$
    – Mohan
    Jul 19, 2020 at 19:23

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