I'm reading William Waterhouse's "Discriminants of etale algebras and related structures", and he makes a basic claim I'm struggling to justify.
Suppose $S/R$ is etale of rank $n$... and let $\pi$ denote the map $\mathrm{Spec}(S)\to\mathrm{Spec}(R)$... Now on the other hand let $F$ be any affine group scheme over $S$; since $S$ is finite over $R$, we also have a direct image group scheme (or Weil restriction) $\pi_\ast F$ over $R$. As a functor, it is defined by $(\pi_\ast F)(U) = F(U\otimes_R S)$. Almost automatically we have then $H^1(S,F)=H^1(R,\pi_\ast F)$.
Here $H^1(S,F)$ is the set of isomorphism classes of $F$-torsors on $S$; i.e. sheaves of $F$-sets locally (over $S$) isomorphic to $F$ acting on itself. I see how to produce a map $H^1(R,\pi_\ast F)\to H^1(S,F)$, but it seems to me that the only $F$-torsors on $S$ you can obtain this way are those $F$-torsors that have a trivialization over some base change to $S$ of a covering of $R$.
My questions:
- Am I interpreting $H^1(R,\pi_\ast F)$ and $H^1(S,F)$ correctly?
- Is Waterhouse correct that these are equal, or are they in fact different?