Let $k$ be a perfect field.
Recall that an algebraic torus $T$ over $k$ is called quasi-split if there exists some finite étale $k$-algebra $A$ such that $$T \cong \mathrm{R}_{A/k} \mathbb{G}_m.$$
A reductive group $G$ over $k$ is called quasi-split if it contains a Borel subgroup $B$ over $k$.
A priori, I see no reason why these two definitions should be related; Indeed any algebraic torus is quasi-split in the second sense (take $B=T$), but generally not in the first sense. However, I have seen it claimed, or at least implicitly used, in proofs that for semisimple $G$, the latter implies the former. Namely:
Let $G$ be a semisimple algebraic group over $k$ with a maximal torus $T$. If $G$ is quasi-split, then is $T$ quasi-split? Does the converse hold?