Assume $A$ and $B$ are commutative algebras with $1$. There is a nice result of Wang, Corollary 8, which says the following: "Let $B = A[z] = A[Z]/(h(Z))$. Then $B$ is a separable algebra over $A$ if and only if $h'(z)$, the formal derivative of $h$ evaluated at $z$, is a unit of $B$".
By definition, an $A$-algebra $B$ is separable over $A$ if $B$ is a projective $B \otimes_A B$-module via $\mu: B\otimes_A B \to B$, $b_1 \otimes_A b_2 \mapsto b_1b_2$. In other words, $B$ is separable over $A$ if $pd_{B\otimes_A B}(B)=0$.
Hence Corollary 8 says: Let $B = A[z] = A[Z]/(h(Z))$. Then $pd_{B\otimes_A B}(B)=0$ if and only if the ideal of $B$ generated by $h'(z)$ is $B$.
My question: Can one generalize Corollary 8 to the following: Let $B = A[z] = A[Z]/(h(Z))$. Then $pd_{B \otimes_A B}(B) = n$ if and only if the ideal of $B$ generated by $h'(z),h''(z), \ldots, h^{(n+1)}$ is $B$.
(Remark: Maybe one should look at $n=1$ first).
Any comment will be appreciated.