I've been trying to read a paper by Krause and came across a strange (to me, of course) notion of localization. After looking around for a long time, and then finding this on his site, I see that there are two notions for localization, both with significant usage online. These are namely Verdier localization and Bousfield localization. Is there a strong motivation to use one over the other? A little bit of context:
I see that Bousfield localization is defined for model categories, and this includes the notion of modules over a ring, among many many others. I don't see a similar restriction for the Verdier localization.
Verdier localization uses the (standard for ''localization'') idea of a multiplicative set S
of maps which are formally inverted by a functor Q
from a category T
to a new category denoted T/S
. Hartshorne's Residues and Duality is a reference for this. (BTW, where does the assumption that the pullback of a multiplicative map is multiplicative come from?)
Bousfield localization is stated in several places (such as the Krause reference above) as a Verdier localization composed with a right adjoint for Q
, which I understand to mean a functorial way of choosing objects in the isomorphism classes, and maps in the multiplicative subsets of each Hom(A,B)
. It is also stated in the generality of model categories as needing three distinguished collections of morphisms: namely quasi-isomorphisms and (co)fibrations. What bothers me more is the definition as given in Krause: an exact functor L
from a triangulated category T
to itself for which there exists a natural transformation η:Id-->L
which commutes with L
(ηL=L
η) and for which ηL
is invertible. As a second, smaller, question, what is encoded by the commutative condition (what would be lost without it?)? I can come up with contrived examples (using the automorphisms of the objects LX
) of course, but in what precise way does η really just encode L
as a natural transformation?